lets deal with the leaven one first. You won't find one passage in Scripture where leaven is used as a positive thing.
So why translate it is as a positive element in this parable?
JM
lets deal with the leaven one first. You won't find one passage in Scripture where leaven is used as a positive thing. First demonstrate from the passage that Jesus was using "leaven" to mean anything other than leaven. If the leaven doesn't mean leaven, what pray tell does the woman and the flour mean?
I've heard this theory before dozens of times. It doesn't fly.