The problem arises because of the King James translation -- in the 17th century, "until" did not imply that the eventuality ever happened, it just was a point in time.
What makes this clearer for modern English speakers is a surviving usage: "She never used tobacco in any form until her dying day." That does NOT mean she started smoking or dipping after her death!
LOL!
I look at the virginity of Mary as alot of to-do about nothing. All that SHOULD matter is that she was a virgin before Jesus' conception. Whether she was AFTER Jesus just doesn't make one whit of difference to me.
(if she dipped or smoked, who could blame her??!) :)
What makes this clearer for modern English speakers is a surviving usage: "She never used tobacco in any form until her dying day." That does NOT mean she started smoking or dipping after her death!
58 posted on 12/27/2005 7:16:56 AM MST by AnAmericanMother
What is clear is that you want to believe something
that is not in the Holy Word of G-d.
You want to believe man-made doctrine.
The use of "She never used tobacco in any form until her dying day."
Until is used as a conjunction and something changing at a point in time.
The plain text suggests that after her death she no longer operated as a living being.
b'shem Y'shua