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Thessalonica was in Macedonia. Also a Gentile city. So Gentile, in fact, Paul and Timothy were prohibited from preaching to the Gentiles there. Well to whom then did they preach? The "circumcised". In the synagogue there.

Chapter & Verse, please?

2) Peter was Apostle to the circumcised. Paul was Apostle to the Gentiles (according to Galations 2:9). How does that square with Paul preaching solely to the Jews in Thessalonica? Sounds a lot like Paul was preaching "on another man's foundation" (if that was Peter's assigned flock, as you contend.)

Chapter & Verse, Please?

Matthew 10:5; [These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the "Lost Sheep of Israel".]

In John 21:14-17 Jesus appearing to all of his disciples for the 3rd time since the resurrection and says to Peter after the meal: Feed my Lambs(verse 15); Take care of my sheep(verse 16); Feed my sheep(verse 17). These are not Gentile sheep.

Again....why would it be necessary for the Lord to designate Paul as an Apostle to the Gentiles if it was O.K. for the twelve to handle that chore? As you can see by plain scripture....that was not their commission.

Additionally, 1 Peter 5:13 states...

As I said in my earlier post, Babylon is Babylon. You can call it Rome all day long with any "code" word you like. It is still Babylon. Did you notice whom Peter was writing to? [To God's elect, strangers in the world, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia and Bithynia, who have been chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father.....] Doesn't sound too much like Gentiles, does it?

You know, I have often wondered about the elitist attitudes among some Catholics and Protestants in these debates. Both claim to have the right doctrine, the right interpretations etc. What amazes me is we (collectively) fail to recall is salvation was unto the Jews FIRST. We are merely grafted in. Paul's codicile in Romans chapters 9 - 11 is very telling of this fact and of the Jews' prominent and equal place in the economy of God forever.

Who are we to boast of anything we did/do or anything our church body did/does? If God did not spare the natural branches, He may not spare us either. Us "gentiles" did not seek God, yet we have a full share in the riches of Abraham. We do not give life to the tree but we draw life from the tree which receives its life source from the taproot, which is Jewish. Let's not even deceive ourselves by offering a replacement theology as an excuse as Paul's words in Romans 11:1 and 11 demolishes such theology.

As I said in my earlier post, Babylon is Babylon.

The equivalent would be writing a letter from "Atlantis". Babylon was already destroyed. Why can't you accept this?

Jesus appearing to all of his disciples for the 3rd time since the resurrection and says to Peter after the meal: Feed my Lambs(verse 15); Take care of my sheep(verse 16); Feed my sheep(verse 17). These are not Gentile sheep.

"Sheep" are designated in three variations: Rams, ewes, and lambs. Just as humans are designated in three variations: Men, women, and children. Feeding "my sheep" implies the entire flock, not just the lambs ("the little ones" Jesus refers to in the Gospels). Why aren't Gentiles included?

Matthew 10:5; [These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the "Lost Sheep of Israel".]

What about the Samaritan woman Jesus approached at the well?

If this be the case, then no one but the twelve (plus Paul) are called to evangelize. Thus, there should be no evangelization in the world since it was limited to exactly what Jesus said, according to your methodology.

BTW, I don't see "Diego1618" commissioned to evangelize on the Internet, anywhere in the Bible.

You requested chapter and verse?

Acts 17:1-4

"1 And when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where there was a synagogue of the Jews.

2 And Paul, according to his custom, went in unto them; and for three sabbath days he reasoned with them out of the scriptures:

Why was this Paul's custom if his strict orders were to evengelize only the gentiles?

3 Declaring and insinuating that the Christ was to suffer, and to rise again from the dead; and that this is Jesus Christ, whom I preach to you.

4 And some of them believed, and were associated to Paul and Silas; and of those that served God, and of the Gentiles a great multitude, and of noble women not a few. "

1 Thessalonians 2:16

"Prohibiting us to speak to the Gentiles, that they may be saved"

So we know he preached to the Jews, and was not allowed to preach to the Gentiles.

(But wait, there's more)

What about Acts 17:10, where Paul preaches to the Jews at Berea?

"But the brethren immediately sent away Paul and Silas by night unto Berea. Who, when they were come thither, went into the synagogue of the Jews."

Sounds like Paul couldn't "quit" them, could he? Given your methodology, Paul was overtly disobedient to Christ in preaching to the Jews when he was supposedly betrothed to the Gentiles. Do you really think that's the case, or are you perhaps interpreting Scripture much too narrowly?