To: OrthodoxPresbyterian; Campion; HarleyD
I don't disagree with Lee Strobel, that what happened was that the church councils recognized what was inherently authoritative. My question, however, is more subtle - how do we know, without resorting to some sort of Magesterium, that Hebrews belongs in the canon, but the Didache does not? There were 200-some gospels and epistles floating around the early church. Some (like the Didache) are of unquestioned orthodoxy. Others are not - but how do we define those without either a Magesterium or
consensus patronum?
These are the philosophical questions that bother me - and I have not heard a satisfying answer yet. I'm still listening for one, however.
18 posted on
02/07/2006 8:00:24 AM PST by
jude24
("Thy law is written on the hearts of men, which iniquity itself effaces not." - St. Augustine)
To: jude24
The doctrine that Holy Scripture is Infallible, by its nature, represents a "Catch-22" against the Romanist dogma of
Prima Scriptura.
See if you can figure out why, Jude. Then tell me.
I'm not baiting you. I'm honestly interested in your answer.
Best, OP
29 posted on
02/07/2006 8:29:48 AM PST by
OrthodoxPresbyterian
(We are Unworthy Servants; We have only done Our Duty - Luke 17:10)
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