To: Petronski; Diamond; Nihil Obstat; Campion; jude24
II Timothy 3:16-17 means necessary; but it does not mean sufficient. In other words, you have the scriptura, but not the sola.
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be *perfect*, *thoroughly* furnished unto *all* good works. (II Timothy 3:16-17)
"Perfect" and "thoroughly"... both Synonyms, if not Superlatives, for "Sufficient" -- in any Lexicon in the world.
I guess that means that we have the Scriptura, and the Sola.
You were saying?
Best, OP
30 posted on
02/07/2006 8:34:17 AM PST by
OrthodoxPresbyterian
(We are Unworthy Servants; We have only done Our Duty - Luke 17:10)
To: OrthodoxPresbyterian
That's part of the second clause, not the first. It says scripture is necessary so that man might have all he needs. After all, without scripture, he would not have all he needs.
Your error in interpretation is precisely my point. Thanks for making it.
31 posted on
02/07/2006 8:37:26 AM PST by
Petronski
(I love Cyborg!)
To: OrthodoxPresbyterian
"Perfect" and "thoroughly"... both Synonyms, if not Superlatives, for "Sufficient" In what language, on what planet?
Any Greek rhetorician can tell you that those adjectives modify "man of God," not "scripture". You're seriously misreading the text to support a position it doesn't teach.
33 posted on
02/07/2006 8:41:13 AM PST by
Campion
("I am so tired of you, liberal church in America" -- Mother Angelica, 1993)
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson