[mike182d]

Here's a pretty good article:

"He may be saying that divorcing an adulterous wife is not what makes her adulterous because she is so already. Another possibility is that Jesus is referring to marriages that are not possible to begin with due to an insurmountable defect like incest. In Matthew 19:9, Jesus uses the word "Porneia," which has a broader range of meaning than "Moicheia," which means adultery. In other words, he says, "Whoever divorces his wife, except for porneia, commits moicheia." If He was giving an exception for adultery, He could have used the more specific "moicheia" instead of porneia. It is argued by some that porneia here refers to incest and is used by St. Matthew to inform those who may be converting to Judaism/Christianity that they are obligated to discontinue marriage arrangements contrary to Jewish law in Levitians 17-18. This argument seems to be supported by the fact that porneia is used to refer to incest in 1 Corinthians 15:11."

http://www.catscans.com/catholicsite/divorce3.htm

[SoothingDave]

In Matthew 19:9, Jesus uses the word "Porneia," which has a broader range of meaning than "Moicheia," which means adultery. In other words, he says, "Whoever divorces his wife, except for porneia, commits moicheia." If He was giving an exception for adultery, He could have used the more specific "moicheia" instead of porneia.

Why argue what the Greek means when we are blessed with the perfect Bible in English?

SD

[silverleaf]

Yes, "sexual immorality" is not further defined but it is clear from numerous examples in the Bible that a "contract" made between parties who were not "pure" (and there are other terms for "pure") would not conform with the intent of the Creator and would impede a true binding contract

[Quester]

In Matthew 19:9, Jesus uses the word "Porneia," which has a broader range of meaning than "Moicheia," which means adultery. In other words, he says, "Whoever divorces his wife, except for porneia, commits moicheia." If He was giving an exception for adultery, He could have used the more specific "moicheia" instead of porneia.

What you have just suggested is not a logical reading.

If "porneia" (i.e. sexual immorality) is a broader term ... then it includes adultery, rather than excludes it.

One could make a much more viable argument that Jesus used "porneia" because He didn't wish to be more specific (i.e. that he was referring to any type of sexual immorality).

It is argued by some that porneia here refers to incest and is used by St. Matthew to inform those who may be converting to Judaism/Christianity that they are obligated to discontinue marriage arrangements contrary to Jewish law in Levitians 17-18. This argument seems to be supported by the fact that porneia is used to refer to incest in 1 Corinthians 15:11."

Do you believe that Jesus is using the broader term here ... to specify incest ?

This would mean that incest would be the only reason why a marriage might be faithfully dissolved.

Is this what the Catholic Church teaches ?