[nina0113]

Is private interpretation of the Bible condoned in the Bible Itself? No, it is not (2 Peter 1:20). Was individual interpretation of Scripture practiced by the early Christians or the Jews? Again, No (Acts 8:29-35).

Actually NYer used Scripture, but you seem to have skipped over that part.

[marajade]

You mean the same scripture I posted earlier in the thread. So now since its Martin Luther that said it, its valid, but when I cite it, it isn't?