"In the United States, recent changes of discipline now permit marriage before ordination in the Eastern Catholic Churches, as well ..."
What the heck does this mean? We've got all these different rites and latin and eastern whatevers that are taking different stances on the issue.
Why not just believe what the Book of Timothy says and be done with all of it. Wouldn't it just be a whole lot simpler?
Dear marajade,
"What the heck does this mean?"
It means that the Catholic Church acknowledges that the practice of the faith grew up in different cultures, and took on different local customs and practices. It means that the Church doesn't believe that in non-doctrinal matters that there must be absolute uniformity between all cultures represented in the Church.
As for doing just what the "Book of Timothy" (I suppose you mean the first letter of Paul to Timothy) does, well, Paul's first letter to Timothy isn't the only book in the Bible. The fact is that St. Paul expressed a strong preference for celibacy among those who would devote themselves wholly to the service of the Lord, and Jesus, too, indicated a preference for celibacy. In fact, both St. Paul and Jesus were celibate men. Were they unworthy for the priesthood, in your view?
Thus, you see diverse practices among the different cultures and traditions that comprise the Catholic Church, and exceptions granted even where a general rule exists in a specific place.
sitetest
Actually you are asking us to believe what is your interpretation of what St. Paul meant in his First Letter to Timothy. The Catholic understanding is that he is not mandating that bishops be married but that they be the husbands of no more than one wife, i.e., that they have shown that they can control their passions. This makes sense from the context and the other restrictions that he puts on the qualification for bishop.
A faithful saying: if a man desire the office of bishop, he desireth a good work. It behoveth therefore a bishop to be blameless, the husband of one wife, sober, prudent, of good behaviour, chaste, given to hospitality, a teacher, not given to wine, no striker, but modest, not quarrelsome, not covetous, but one that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all chastity. But if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?Here we see that the question of having one wife is included with other virtues that demonstrate self-control. You may argue with this interpretation but your position that St. Paul is actually mandating marriage for bishops is also an interpretation.
(1 Timothy 3:1-5)
It should also be pointed out that the discipline of celibacy in the Latin church (not to start an argument with my Eastern brethren) is based on our understanding that this, or with the priest and his wife refraining from sexual relations after his ordination, was actually the original discipline among the Apostles; it being latter relaxed in the East to allow married priests and their wives to live together. I would refer you to the book The Apostolic Origins of Priestly Celibacy by Fr. Christian Cochini, S.J. Thus we would hold that we are only maintaining the discipline that we have received from the Apostles themselves.
It would be a lot simpler if you just believed the Letter of St. Paul to Timothy. But that's besides the point, I guess.
Yes is can see where simple would appeal to you.