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Catholic and Protestant Bibles: What is the Difference?
Catholic Exchange.com ^ | 02-06-07 | Mary Harwell Sayler

Posted on 03/07/2007 9:10:18 AM PST by Salvation

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To: annalex
However, whatever the mechanism of the creation of man is presumed, the biological parenthood of Adam and Eve is a dogmatic belief.

That is excellent to hear.

1,121 posted on 04/30/2007 10:53:12 PM PDT by Forest Keeper
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To: Forest Keeper; kosta50; Kolokotronis; kawaii
God is behind God's plan, not Adam's pride

Again, I call your attention to the scriptural fact that God called out to Adam, "where are you?". For this to make any sense, the inspired author was telling us that Adam was making his own choices.

1,122 posted on 05/01/2007 7:16:26 AM PDT by annalex
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To: kosta50; annalex; Kolokotronis; kawaii
To repent is a choice. There is no such thing as "natural" human behavior. Everything men does is learned.

Are you saying that what we call "human nature" is learned? That makes no sense. You said yourself that Christ had two natures. Did He only have one until He learned the human one? I really disagree with that.

FK: "As I understand your belief, Jesus went and snatched him out of Hades, thus proving that Adam did repent at some point."

I don't see why He would have done that. I don't believe it. That's for sure.

Well, then what are those icons from the Luther thread all about? I remember them, and they showed Jesus "freeing" Adam from, I think, Hades. Am I way off course here?

FK: "Once the sin [of Adam] was committed though, the deed was done and could not have been undone."

The Christian teaching is that by repentance the sins are forgiven, committed to oblivion, which is as good as if they never happened (great is God's mercy).

No, no, no. :) We're talking about Adam's sin. He could repent and be saved himself, just like the rest of us. However, once he committed that sin, its effects could not be undone. We call that original sin, and I know you understand the principle as another idea. Once Adam sinned, history was changed forever, regardless of whether he later repented or not.

FK: "God is behind God's plan, not Adam's pride."

But if God is sovereign and doesn't allow free will then Adam's pride is not his pride but part of God's will and plan. Then why would Adam be punished? For obedience?

To me, this is the same as saying that satan is God's fault BECAUSE He gave him free will, knowing what would happen. Neither is true. All creatures will be held accountable for their sins.

1,123 posted on 05/09/2007 3:59:40 AM PDT by Forest Keeper
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To: FourtySeven; Alex Murphy

Your error is assuming that everyone who is not a catholic is protestant.

You are putting forth the hypothesis if not A then B without allowing for the possibility of C-Z.

You are using very sloppy logic....


1,124 posted on 05/10/2007 11:52:56 AM PDT by Gamecock (FR Member Gamecock: Declared Anathema By The Council Of Trent)
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To: Gamecock; Alex Murphy

Yes, it has become clear to me that that is probably what Alex Murphy was saying to me, however my more general point is clear: There are at least 2 Protestant denominations on that list, and to deny that, well, I won’t say since that got me into trouble last time. But you’re a smart guy, you can read between the lines.


1,125 posted on 05/10/2007 12:03:57 PM PDT by FourtySeven (47)
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To: FourtySeven; Gamecock
Yes, it has become clear to me that that is probably what Alex Murphy was saying to me

That one of the points I was making to you.

...however my more general point is clear

No, it's still as muddled as it ever was. Unless you'd like to include the Great Schism of 1054, the split following the Council of Chalcedon, etc etc etc in your argument :)

1,126 posted on 05/10/2007 2:38:21 PM PDT by Alex Murphy (FR Member Alex Murphy: Declared Anathema By The Council Of Trent)
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To: Alex Murphy

My main point is clear, despite your protestations (excuse the pun) to the contrary. Think of the movie “Highlander”: There can be only one. Catholics and Orthodox would agree on that point, we would just disagree on which one that “one” is.

You and other Protestants however, clearly don’t agree that there can be (or even should be) only one, true Church, that is visible. Despite what Scripture says (that Christ estabilished a Church that the gates of hell would not prevail against, and also said it would be visible, in Matthew), and despite the fact that there IS more than one Protestant denomination, and these denominations are clearly different doctrinally, you and apparently others here seem to want to have your cake, and eat it too.

On one hand, you want there to be a unified “invisible church”, yet the other, don’t want to say it’s DOCTRINALLY unified, so you don’t have to prove it is. I would submit that something that isn’t unified around doctrine can’t really be unified at all. This “invisible church” of yours and other Protestants, if it isn’t unified doctrinally, is nothing more than universalism.

Trust me that point is quite clear to anyone reading along, that doesn’t have a dog in this fight.


1,127 posted on 05/11/2007 8:49:26 AM PDT by FourtySeven (47)
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To: FourtySeven
My main point is clear, despite your protestations (excuse the pun) to the contrary.

Your main point remains squishy, porous, incapable of penetration or even just making purchase, incapable of supporting weight, and is exceedingly sparse and lightweight overall. Oh, and it tickles when you poke me with it. My advice is "next time, don't bring a Nerf ball to a gun fight". But I will admit that your pun was clever. That part I would keep.

No hard feelings? [pun intended]

1,128 posted on 05/11/2007 9:37:20 AM PDT by Alex Murphy (FR Member Alex Murphy: Declared Anathema By The Council Of Trent)
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To: ScubieNuc

You are right... Better stick to the Douay-Rheims. Incidentally, the NIV is not approved for use in any Catholic liturgies.


1,129 posted on 09/28/2007 9:36:10 AM PDT by dangus
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To: Quix

>> His Spirit within us bears witness with our Spirit as Scripture declares. <<

And how do you discern spirits?

By comparing them to scripture?

But how do you tell what is scripture?

By discerning His Spirit, of course!

Do you see the problem here?


1,130 posted on 09/28/2007 9:38:18 AM PDT by dangus
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To: Sloth; Salvation

>> Protestants are using some non-Catholic source of authority to determine which books are legitimate. <<

Yes, for the Old Testament, it’s the explicitly anti-Christian Council of Jamnia. Not a great source. St. Jerome DID hold the books of the Septuagint to be scripture, but he did not understand where they came from. The Septuagint is a canon from before the Jewish rejection of Christ; Luther’s comes from their explicit rejection of him. St. Jerome saw the differences between the Jamnian (Masoretic) text and the New Testament, and concluded the apostles based the New Testament on a translation which erred greviously. In fact, we now know that the Septuagint is based on Hebrew texts remarkably similar to those found in Qumran cavesm from before Christ.

Salvation was referring to the New Testament.


1,131 posted on 09/28/2007 9:45:30 AM PDT by dangus
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To: dangus

The problem appears to be . . .

in the level of experience

on the other side of the issue . . .

JESUS SAID that His sheep knew HIS VOICE.

Evidently there’s a problem there . . .

either those listening are not His sheep . . . or the sheep need their ears cleaned out . . . or perhaps there’s a dreadful lack of experience hearing and obeying and He’s waiting for the obeying to catch up before trying to communicate further.


1,132 posted on 09/28/2007 10:40:28 AM PDT by Quix (GOD ALONE IS GOD; WORTHY; PAID THE PRICE; IS COMING AGAIN; KNOWS ALL; IS LOVING; IS ALTOGETHER GOOD)
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To: dangus

Or, perhaps alternately, the other side is trying to insist that JESUS THE CHRIST; KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS . . . didn’t know what He was talking about.

#########

The problem appears to be . . .

in the level of experience

on the other side of the issue . . .

JESUS SAID that His sheep knew HIS VOICE.

Evidently there’s a problem there . . .

either those listening are not His sheep . . . or the sheep need their ears cleaned out . . . or perhaps there’s a dreadful lack of experience hearing and obeying and He’s waiting for the obeying to catch up before trying to communicate further.


1,133 posted on 09/28/2007 10:41:40 AM PDT by Quix (GOD ALONE IS GOD; WORTHY; PAID THE PRICE; IS COMING AGAIN; KNOWS ALL; IS LOVING; IS ALTOGETHER GOOD)
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To: dangus
Wow! I posted that thing awhile ago. Now I don't know if you are just looking for a debate or what, but I'll respond with this....

From my understanding the KJV is translated directly from Greek transcripts.

The Douay Rheims is translated from the Latin Vulgate, which is translated from other latin transcripts which apparently come from what are called the 'Alexandrian' or Egyptian texts. These 'Alexandrian' texts do not match up with the 'Greek' texts in alot of places.

It's been awhile since I waded through all of this stuff, so I really don't think I do it again tonight, but If the Douay Rheims says

"For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." (Rom 10:13)

or

" And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." (John 3:14-16) then I would say it has some value.

Sincerely
1,134 posted on 09/28/2007 5:15:38 PM PDT by ScubieNuc
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To: ScubieNuc

Somehow I got your post after posting to a much more recent article, and mistook it for being part of the much more recent thread.

Incidentally, the claim that the KJV is translated from Greek transcripts was made by the KJV scholars, but it was, in fact, largely copied (nearly verbatim in places) from the Geneva bible, which actually was created mostly from the Vulgate.


1,135 posted on 09/29/2007 4:30:49 PM PDT by dangus
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