I’m making no distinction whatsoever. Scripture speaks for itself. If a doctrine or practice is supported in Scripture, that’s sufficient. The problem with the defense given in this thread is the obtuse leap from Jesus’ and Paul’s activities to what certain faiths are practicing.
Ultimately, these are matters between individual adherents to these faiths and God. I am simply pointing out that these practices are grounded in superstition and/or “traditions of men”, and not Scripture. If an individual wishes to continue in these practices, that is certainly within the free will allotted by God to all men. God is the ultimate judge of each man’s eternal destiny.
Give me an example of the "leap." How does a practice today differ from what Paul did.