Nope. The same Greek word that Paul uses for "bread" here is used for "bread" everywhere else in the NT. It is also the word used for those "loaves" of bread with which He fed the 5000. It was the same bread in all places.
I'm not making it up -- the Aristotelians in your church were the ones making it all up, creating a transubstantiation doctrine that had all the accidents of orthodoxy but lacking the substance thereof.
Oh, you just mean that the same term is used. That’s true. But it doesn’t change the fact that in several places, the NT DOES refer to the bread as being something other than mere bread.