The issue is that there are separate eras/periods/epochs/whatever-you-want-to-call-them clearly evident in the Bible’s review of religious history.
Do you agree with that?
Let me repeat myself....
the issue is not are there seperate dispensations as the WHOLE church has understood the word, but is the theology, eschatology, and method of Bible slicing of Dispensationalism Biblical. You must answer the charge, not simply ignore it and focus on something which you think you can get agreement.