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To: NYer
From the grammatical point of view, the phrase "this rock" must relate back to the closest noun. Peter’s profession of faith ("You are the Christ, the Son of the living God") is two verses earlier, while his name, a proper noun, is in the immediately preceding clause.

Scholars knowledgeable about ME languages and idioms of this time period should be able to explain better than I (and I am NOT a scholar by any means) why this does not refer to Peter. Allegories, parables and other usages were commonplace at this time to illustrate a point.

139 posted on 11/18/2007 1:32:58 PM PST by BipolarBob (Yes I backed over the vampire, but I swear I didn't see it in my rear view mirror.)
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To: BipolarBob
In response to your posts 137, 138 and 139, I can only say that you are wrong on so many points. You have donned the blinders and, despite Scriptural references justifying Peter's primacy, including those from his own disciples, you choose to argue on very weak arguments. I never suggested that the writings of the Early Church Fathers were part of your or my Bible and presented them strictly as testimony to the early Church.

I could continue to cite Scriptural proof of God's promises to Peter and why He established a Church with him as its Prime Minister but not with your pre-existing prejudices. You unfairly draw a monetary comparison between Pope Benedict XVI and Peter. This is a sad example that stems from ignorance of the Catholic Church. It is not unique to you but, once again, reflects your established prejudice against Christ's Institution. It reflects poorly on those who formed you in your faith.

Is private interpretation of the Bible condoned in the Bible Itself?  No, it is not (2 Peter 1:20).  Was individual interpretation of Scripture practiced by the early Christians or the Jews?  Again, "NO" (Acts 8:29-35).  The assertion that individuals can correctly interpret Scripture is false. Even the "founder" of Sola Scriptura (Martin Luther), near the end of his life, was afraid that "any milkmaid who could read" would found a new Christian denomination based on his or her "interpretation" of the Bible.  Luther opened a "Pandora's Box" when he insisted that the Bible could be interpreted by individuals and that It is the sole authority of Christianity.  Why do we have over 20,000 different non-Catholic Christian denominations?  The reason is individuals' "different" interpretations of the Bible. Can there be more than one interpretation of the Bible?  No.  The word "truth" is used several times in the New Testament.  However, the plural version of the word "truth" never appears in Scripture.  Therefore, there can only be one Truth.  So how can there be over 20,000 non-Catholic Christian denominations all claiming to have the "Truth".

I have taken the liberty of pinging you to a post on a thread whose topic is of no interest to you. The comment, however, includes an interesting 'extra-biblical' piece of information. It is nothing more than a tidbit or appetizer, with no Scriptural support. It's simply 'interesting'.

It seems your co-Evangelicls neglected to ping you to this thread. The author of this thread, Marcus Grodi, has astutely commented that every so many years, various non-Catholic Christian denominations split and divide. Judging from the comments made by J.P. Moreland, it looks like the Evangelicals are getting ready to divide. Meanwhile, the Catholic Church founded by Jesus Christ more than 2000 years ago, continues to navigate the murky waters, solid in its faith.

Thank you! I have enjoyed our discussion.

140 posted on 11/18/2007 4:54:32 PM PST by NYer ("Where the bishop is present, there is the Catholic Church" - Ignatius of Antioch)
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