To God & to His will, right?
And the wine failing, the mother of Jesus saith to him: They have no wine. And Jesus saith to her: Woman, what is that to me and to thee? my hour is not yet come. His mother saith to the waiters: Whatsoever he shall say to you, do ye. (John 2:3-5)
Douay Rheims commentary on the underlined portion: "What is that to me"... These words of our Saviour, spoken to his mother, have been understood by some commentators as harsh, they not considering the next following verse: Whatsoever he shall say to you, do ye, which plainly shows that his mother knew of the miracle that he was to perform, and that it was at her request he wrought it; besides the manner of speaking the words as to the tone, and the countenance shown at the same time, which could only be known to those who were present, or from what had followed: for words indicating anger in one tone of voice, would be understood quite the reverse in another.
If Jesus hadn't done anything about the wine situation, would it have been a sin? Would He be showing dishonor toward His mother? The commentary makes Mary a prophet. Wouldn't the commentary be saying that the Prophet Mary knew God's will better than Jesus? If not, how do you explain away the portion of the passage that is in bold, "my hour is not yet come"?
It's not an act of concupiscence to intercede or petition, so even if He did nothing, her request wouldn't be a sin any more than Jesus would have sinned by asking God to take away the cup of suffering in the Garden of Gethsemane, knowing full well He had to go to the cross.
The commentary makes Mary a prophet.
In baptism, we're all prophets, priests, and kings. Mary, full of grace, indeed enjoyed the gift of prophecy. This had to be a tremendous source of sorrow, knowing that her Son came to die, AND in spite of her motherhood, having to positively will it, since that was His will. Contrast that with Peter's impulsively trying to steer Jesus away from the cross. In light of this, her place at the foot of the cross was an act of sheer strength.
Wouldn't the commentary be saying that the Prophet Mary knew God's will better than Jesus? If not, how do you explain away the portion of the passage that is in bold, "my hour is not yet come"?
"My hour is not yet come" doesn't refer to His first miracle, it refers to His last. The water changed into wine is only a precursor of His taking wine and changing it into His blood, but this public revelation straightens the path to the cross. It's truly not "his hour", but it certainly winds the clock. Jesus identifies the significance of this event as it relates to the Last Supper, but especially the final act of redemption, spilling water and blood from His side at Golgotha. It is there that Jesus utters the final response to this request: "It is finished."