Again I have to ask, if Jesus' statement to Mary and John were to be taken universally, then why wouldn't it have been reiterated as a crucial point of doctrine, either implicitly or explicitly, by the apostles throughout the NT?
You asked the question and I answered. St. john the Theologian write the Apocalypse and it makes a reference to Mary’s children as all those who obey the commandments. I don’t care how you interpret that to be about Israel, or Nicaragua or Pittsburgh, PA — I answered your question.
>> We can debate the meaning of the woman in Revelation 12 endlessly without coming to agreement on the point. Those who believe the woman is Covenant Israel have strong support from OT prophesy (Genesis 37). <<
Why is it that so many people interpret prophecies in such a way as to say, “No, it can’t mean A because it means B!”? The woman in Revelations is plainly the mother of Christ. That she is described in ways one might describe all of Israel is only a further glorification of her role as mother of Christ. And all of covenant Israel shares in the glory of her role. She is the ends to which the entirety of Old Testament history was directed: the bearing of Christ into the world.
As for a command, how’s this one:
“From age to age, all generations SHALL call me blessed.” Not, “will,” but “shall.” Ask a lawyer what “shall” means.