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To: kosta50; Kolokotronis
yes, he does [know that his sin has been absolved]

Very well; therefore, the Orthodox priest does make a decision to absolve or not that is efficacious; whether he verbalizes it with "absolvo te" or with some other language, or not at all, is a secondary matter.

It is not like "filioque" where the procession of the Holy Ghost is a real theological contention. It is more like the Orthodox epiclesis as opposed to the Catholic institution where the form is different but the theology is the same, and the supernatural effect is the same.

53 posted on 06/04/2008 2:27:32 PM PDT by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex; kosta50; Huber; sionnsar

“It is more like the Orthodox epiclesis as opposed to the Catholic institution where the form is different but the theology is the same, and the supernatural effect is the same. “

I am wondering how correct this really is, in some of the corners I mean. There was a very interesting post here on FR just the other day in this regard, which frankly may merit its own thread:

http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2024026/posts?page=102#102


54 posted on 06/04/2008 3:15:49 PM PDT by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated)
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