[Kolokotronis]

“Can anyone explain to me what is meant by this statement?”

Likely he means the Church of Rome’s claim that the pope has ordinary and immediate local jurisdiction over the entire Church.

[thefrankbaum]

It seems to me as if he is saying, in this translation, the Church give up its currently-held temporal power. The Orthodox don't believe the Pope holds such jurisdiction (right?), so why would he not say that they look for the Church give up the claim rather than the actual power? Further, isn't that power - regardless of its existence - a spiritual one? It would seem an odd usage of "temporal" if that is what he meant.

[NYer]

You raised the same question as another freeper -

“Can anyone explain to me what is meant by this statement?”

To which Kolokotronis responded - Likely he means the Church of Rome’s claim that the pope has ordinary and immediate local jurisdiction over the entire Church.