I remember hearing in my Roman history class that a Roman killed his son because he was a homosexual. My understanding was this occurred in the second or first century B.C. I doubt his act of killing his son was motivated by Judaism.
I don’t question that you may have been taught that in a history class. (Speaking for myself, I took a class from a history teacher who I later learned was very inaccurate on many events when I later read other sources.) And an individual Roman father may well have done that in an individual case. But I have been taught that the Ancient Greco-Roman world as a whole was very well known for its tolerance and glorification of male homosexuality and pederasty, often in connection with that culture’s now very non-PC view of seeing men as superior to women.