Please correct me if I am wrong, but my understanding is that excommunication is automatic and needs no formal action on the part of the Catholic Church.
That is, he excommunicated himself when he first broke his vows as a priest.
Is this correct?
What about all the priests that did not remain “celibate” when they sexually abused all the young girls and boys. Don’t see them excommunicated! I’m a practicing Roman Catholic and am sickened by the double standards the heirarchy lives by. How many Roman priests, bishops, etc. in Rome have “housekeepers” who are their live-in lovers?
The act of schism was the central act here - not the violation of celibacy.
The schism was voluntary and informed and he did it anyway.
You are correct! Just like those women who went through the phony ordinations and now proclaim themselves Roman Catholic priests.