[bdeaner]

The point is that traditions should not contradict Scripture.

Yes, and Catholic tradition certainly does not contradict Scripture.

Romans 3, verse 10 says, "...as it is written: 'None is righteous, no, not one.'" Yet, James 5:16 says that the prayer of a righteous man availeth much. If absolutely no one is righteous, then who is James talking about? Luke chapter 1 says that Elizabeth and Zechariah were righteous before God. If absolutely no one is righteous, then how can that be? Is Scripture contradicting itself? No, the folks who interpret Romans as saying absolutely, without exception, no one is righteous, are misinterpreting that passage. They are failing to realize that the key to understanding Romans 3:10 is the phrase, "it is written."

Here in Romans, Paul is quoting from the O.T., Psalm 14 to be exact. In Psalm 14 it says, "The fool says in his heart, 'There is no God. They are corrupt...there is none that does good.'" But then that same psalm goes on to talk about the "righteous." Well, if none has done good, who are these righteous the psalm is talking about? Obviously, when the psalmist says that none has done good, he is talking about the fools who say there is no God. He is not talking about absolutely everyone.

Just so Paul when he quotes from this psalm. Paul is not saying absolutely no one is righteous, if he was, then how do you explain all the Old and New Testament passages that refer to the righteous? In Romans 3:11 it says that no one seeks for God. Does that mean that absolutely no one is seeking God? No, to interpret it that way would be ludicrous!

Just so verse 23 which says that "all have sinned". Babies haven't sinned, have they? Little children haven't sinned, have they? No! This is not an absolute. There are exceptions. What about John the Baptist? Did he sin? Scripture says that he was filled with the Holy Spirit even from his mother's womb. Can someone who is filled with the Holy Spirit his entire life ever sin? It's something to think about.

So, it is perfectly legitimate to say that these passages from Romans, when interpreted in context, in no way conflict with the Church's teaching on Mary being without sin.

[Mr Rogers]

The word for righteous is “dikaios”, meaning:

1) righteous, observing divine laws

a) in a wide sense, upright, righteous, virtuous, keeping the commands of God

1) of those who seem to themselves to be righteous, who pride themselves to be righteous, who pride themselves in their virtues, whether real or imagined

2) innocent, faultless, guiltless

3) used of him whose way of thinking, feeling, and acting is wholly conformed to the will of God, and who therefore needs no rectification in the heart or life

a) only Christ truly

4) approved of or acceptable of God

b) in a narrower sense, rendering to each his due and that in a judicial sense, passing just judgment on others, whether expressed in words or shown by the manner of dealing with them

---

James is obviously using it in sense 1A - a good person. And no one denies there are people who are better than others at doing good.

However, Paul is obviously using it in sense 3, for the preceding sentence is “We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin.”

I quoted just that verse, but the one prior also makes the case - that ALL ARE UNDER SIN.

In chapter 1, Paul talks about the righteous judgment of God on evil men. In chapter 2, he essentially says, “You felt good while I was condemning homosexuals, but your own words and thoughts condemn you, for you are just as bad in the eyes of God.” Chapter 2 finishes with a reply to those who say, “I’m a Jew, I have the Law of God...”

Chapter 3 starts off by saying, yes, the Jews have much to boast about - BUT NOT SINLESS, since righteousness comes from faith, not obeying the law. And then Paul says, “9 What shall we conclude then? Are we [Jews] any better? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin. 10 As it is written:
“There is no one righteous, not even one;
11there is no one who understands,
no one who seeks God.”

So Paul’s meaning here does not contradict James, but it does contradict the claim that Mary was without sin, and obeyed the Law her entire life.

Babies are probably born tainted by sin. I say probably, because I haven’t researched the Scripture enough to feel confident of my answer. However, a 2 year old most definitely shows all the signs of sin in his/her life!

And yes, John the Baptist sinned. Matthew 11 records his doubt about Jesus.

If someone can live without sin, why did Jesus need to die? “21 I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness were through the law, then Christ died for no purpose.”