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My Journey Out of Dispensationalism
Sola Deo Gloria ^ | July 29, 2009 | PJ Miller

Posted on 10/20/2009 8:00:19 AM PDT by Gamecock

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1 posted on 10/20/2009 8:00:20 AM PDT by Gamecock
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To: topcat54

If you find this ping-worthy.....


2 posted on 10/20/2009 8:02:37 AM PDT by Gamecock ("...Christ crucified, a stumbling block to Jews and folly to Gentiles" and both to Americans.)
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To: Gamecock

Interesting post! Our son is praying about what his master’s thesis title will be...as it will determine his studies the next 1 &1/2 yrs.


3 posted on 10/20/2009 8:10:18 AM PDT by Shery (in APO Land)
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To: Gamecock

Dispensationalism is fading because new generations of Christians find no novelty in the existence of Israel as a nation.

It’s no longer “news” to them.

Sad.


4 posted on 10/20/2009 8:13:51 AM PDT by fishtank (The denial of original sin is the root of liberalism.)
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To: Gamecock

“I approach theology in a spirit of adventure, being always curious about what I may find. For me theology is like a rich feast, with many dishes to enjoy and delicacies to taste.” (quoted in Grenz 134).

Isn’t it amazing that there are still so many dishes and delicacies to enjoy in God’s word? I disagree with Solomon that there is nothing new under the sun. I think this “book” which has been around for quite a while still contains so many treasures still undiscovered.

Still, a bit of clarification might be derived from looking at the true meaning of the word commonly translated as “church,” or “the church.” I submit a more proper rendering would be “the outcalled” of God, not the church. Is this distinction important? Absolutely!

Furthermore, I am always amazed at how people make such a big deal about labeling something or someone a “dispensationalist.” Isn’t a dispensation simply a method of dealing with? An adminstration, as it were. Doesn’t God have different ways of dealing with people, especially at different times?


5 posted on 10/20/2009 8:28:41 AM PDT by Overwatcher
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To: Gamecock
As I continued to pastor and preach, I realized that my training in the Old Testament was weak. I decided to pursue a Master of Theology in Old Testament at Westminster Theological Seminary.

Not sure what he expected to happen by persuing this course of action. A Covenant theologian doesn't develop his OT theology based on the OT text ... he bases it on his New Testament understanding of the OT text.

I will grant that Poythres is the only non-dispensationalist that seems to make a serious effort to dialog and understand dispensationalism. I speak as one who went the opposite direction ... from being brought up in the Reformed camp and eventually embracing the Baptist tradition.

6 posted on 10/20/2009 9:15:18 AM PDT by dartuser ("If you torture the data long enough, it will confess, even to crimes it did not commit")
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To: fishtank

Your comment that “new generations of Christians find no novelty in the existence of Israel as a nation” is very interesting to me, and unfortunately it is quite accurate.

Does the present day nation of Israel, as mandated by the corrupt, man-made United Nations, constitute the Israel of God? Or, is God going to do the establishing? Just wondering what you think.


7 posted on 10/20/2009 9:48:20 AM PDT by Overwatcher
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To: Gamecock

Good post. Thanks.


8 posted on 10/20/2009 9:49:49 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: Overwatcher

oikonomia = administration = dispensation

Very Biblical words..............


9 posted on 10/20/2009 9:49:58 AM PDT by fishtank (The denial of original sin is the root of liberalism.)
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To: Overwatcher

The prophet Jeremiah says the re-gathering will be first in unbelief, then God will change them (the Jews) to belief in Him.


10 posted on 10/20/2009 9:50:50 AM PDT by fishtank (The denial of original sin is the root of liberalism.)
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To: dartuser; raynearhood
A Covenant theologian doesn't develop his OT theology based on the OT text ... he bases it on his New Testament understanding of the OT text.

Or rather, “based on the OT text alone . Covenant theology properly understood rightly identifies the relationship between the testaments.

It is the dispensationalist who gets much of their theology, esp. their views on prophecy, from the OT text taken in isolation from the NT.

from being brought up in the Reformed camp and eventually embracing the Baptist tradition.

That’s an odd connection since most of the Baptists I know are reformed and covenantal and utterly reject dispensationalism. The historic Baptist position certainly was non-dispensational, although many have clearly fallen from those earlier days.

11 posted on 10/20/2009 9:58:17 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: fishtank; Overwatcher; Gamecock; Lee N. Field; Alex Murphy; raynearhood; Dr. Eckleburg
oikonomia = administration = dispensation Very Biblical words..............

Indeed, when properly understood. I.e.,:

5. This covenant [of grace] was differently administered in the time of the law, and in the time of the gospel: under the law, it was administered by promises, prophecies, sacrifices, circumcision, the paschal lamb, and other types and ordinances delivered to the people of the Jews, all foresignifying Christ to come; which were, for that time, sufficient and efficacious, through the operation of the Spirit, to instruct and build up the elect in faith in the promised Messiah, by whom they had full remission of sins, and eternal salvation; and is called the old testament.

6. Under the gospel, when Christ, the substance, was exhibited, the ordinances in which this covenant is dispensed are the preaching of the Word, and the administration of the sacraments of baptism and the Lord's Supper: which, though fewer in number, and administered with more simplicity, and less outward glory, yet, in them, it is held forth in more fullness, evidence and spiritual efficacy, to all nations, both Jews and Gentiles; and is called the new testament. There are not therefore two covenants of grace, differing in substance, but one and the same, under various dispensations.

Westminster Confession of Faith, Chapter 7

The designation "dispensation" had to do with how the one covenant of grace was administered before Christ vs. after Christ. Before Christ it was administered via temporary promises, prophecies, sacrifices, circumcision, etc. After Christ, who is the substance of the covenant, the shadows gave way to the reality. We look back on the broken body and shed blood, and remember Christ’s work in the sacraments of baptism and the Lord’s Supper.

According the WCF, I can say that I’m a dispensationalist without having to acknowledge all the modern day, futurist nonsense that term has come to mean. Unfortunately, it would cause confusion among the biblically and theologically illiterate. It’s much like using the entirely appropriate designation “catholic”. The knee-jerk reaction from the know-nothings would be immediate.

12 posted on 10/20/2009 10:09:33 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: Gamecock; BibChr; P-Marlowe

The premise of this article misapplis Ryrie. Ryrie clearly believed in remnant Israel ALSO being within the Church. In the same way as Israel included the “remnant” is Elijah’s day and both were “Israel”, so will that distinction hold toward the end.

However, Israel “will not see Him again until (they) say, “Blessed is He who comes in the name of the Lord.” And then, “all Israel shall be saved.” as Paul says.


13 posted on 10/20/2009 10:10:31 AM PDT by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain and Proud of It! Those who support our troops pray for their victory!)
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To: fishtank

Yes, He will plead with them (as an attorney pleads his case) in the wilderness (or place of separation) where He can deal with them directly, and without interruptions.


14 posted on 10/20/2009 10:12:00 AM PDT by Overwatcher
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To: xzins; Lee N. Field; Alex Murphy; raynearhood; Dr. Eckleburg
The premise of this article misapplis Ryrie. Ryrie clearly believed in remnant Israel ALSO being within the Church. In the same way as Israel included the “remnant” is Elijah’s day and both were “Israel”, so will that distinction hold toward the end.

Where does Ryrie use that sort of language?

However, Israel “will not see Him again until (they) say, “Blessed is He who comes in the name of the Lord.” And then, “all Israel shall be saved.” as Paul says.

Which points out how untenable the classic dispensationalist view is. If your claim about Ryrie is accurate, they would apparently equivocate on the term “Israel” and then chastise non-dispensationalists who do the same thing (at least in their mind).

Tell us all plainly, what does the phrase, “And so all Israel shall be saved” mean in actuality?

15 posted on 10/20/2009 10:22:14 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: fishtank; Overwatcher
The prophet Jeremiah says the re-gathering will be first in unbelief, then God will change them (the Jews) to belief in Him.

C&V, s’il vous plait.

16 posted on 10/20/2009 10:24:42 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: ItsOurTimeNow; HarleyD; suzyjaruki; nobdysfool; jkl1122; Calvinist_Dark_Lord; Dr. Eckleburg; ...
Reformed Eschatology Ping List (REPL)
Biblically Optimistic and Gospel-Based

"For these are the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled." (Luke 21:22)

17 posted on 10/20/2009 10:25:43 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: topcat54; Gamecock

It means the remnant shall be saved.

You didn’t ping Gamey, and he’s the one who started the thread.

You haven’t read Ryrie have you?


18 posted on 10/20/2009 10:28:06 AM PDT by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain and Proud of It! Those who support our troops pray for their victory!)
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To: topcat54

Did you know that the Greek word for 'pearl' is "margarita"?

19 posted on 10/20/2009 10:28:55 AM PDT by fishtank (The denial of original sin is the root of liberalism.)
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To: topcat54

oikonomia = administration = dispensation Very Biblical words..............

Yes,and they all have the same meaning.

Help me to understand. If I am dealing with you in a certain manner (administration, dispensation, etc.) then I should be consistent and act in accordance with the established set of ground rules. It seems to me that grace and the law are mutually exclusive, that is, I can’t deal with you in grace (undeserved favor) and also be dealing with you in the law in the same set of circumstances.

So, I can’t see how a covenant of grace can be administered in the time of law (by law, I understand to mean “rendering judgment,” which I understand is the purpose of the law).


20 posted on 10/20/2009 10:37:09 AM PDT by Overwatcher
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