To: xone; Ken4TA
even if there was no church history or recounting of infant baptism from the period, Scriptures itself speak through the words: all/paedia/household etc about the universality of the practice and the lack of exclusionary words. When Jesus speaks of all men he means all people not just males.
E. The doer, or agent (Lat. agens), in the sacraments is Christ Himself. The act performed by a minister is not simply a signum significans (sign that means something) but a signum efficax (creative sign). Hence Luther not only asks: What does such baptizing with water signify? but also says: It effects forgiveness of sins, delivers from death and the devil, and grants eternal salvation to all who believe, as the Word and promise of God declare.
Baptism [is] a gracious water of life and a washing of regeneration in the Holy Spirit, as St. Paul wrote to Titus (3:58). And: Forgiveness of sins, life, and salvation are given to us in the sacrament [of the altar]. (SC IV 6, 10; VI 6)
posted on 03/22/2010 7:56:57 AM PDT
(Origen(200AD)"The Church received from theApostles the tradition of giving Baptism even to infants")
To: Cronos; xone
While I would love to discuss both the IC of Mary and the history of infant baptism, I find that I don't have the time to expound upon them in the near future. I'll be unavailable for the next week or so because I'm involved in working with our Patriots group for town halls this spring and summer heading into the elections in November.
This does not mean that I'll not keep track of you all in this discussion - just that I'll not be able to respond. I wish you all good luck and best wishes in your discussions. May the spirit of God be with you all in this work.
PS: Cronos, I'll be watching for your response on substantiating that the early church believed in the IC of Mary, or that they prayed to her for intersession. Good luck.
posted on 03/22/2010 8:37:44 AM PDT
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