Posted on 07/25/2010 6:23:43 AM PDT by MarianoApologeticus
In the Bible we find that:...
For these facts, see: Genesis 1:27; Exodus 15:20; Numbers ch. 27; 2nd Kings 22:14; 2nd Chronicles 34:22; Job 42:15; Proverbs 31:16; Isaiah 8:3; Judges 4:4; Luke 2:36; Romans 16:1-2; Acts 1:12-14, 2:1, 16:14, 21:7-9, 9:36, 18:26; Titus 2:3-4...
Also note that while Pliny the Younger (Plinius Secundus) was Governor of Bithynia in Asia Minor in 112 AD he wrote to Emperor Tarjan in Epistles 10.96, referring to Christians he writes of two female slaves, who were styled deaconesses....
Now, the typical [pseudo] skeptic will read this and will refuse to be confused by facts but will dismiss it by asking about things that pertain to roles and not to ontology.
(Excerpt) Read more at truefreethinker.com ...
Well written. Christianity offers more for women than any other religion, yet it is the one that is called oppressive.
Still, there must be a reason God gave us 7 ribs and them 6?
LOL
Very true and women should feel confident in pursuing any endeavor
Great post. BTTT
“Is the Bible misogynistic?”
Misogyny is relative. For example, in the ancient world, while slavery was legal, it also had the ‘positive element’ of being able to sell yourself, or members of your family, as *preferable* to starvation. Especially if there were strong rules about the treatment of slaves to prevent abuse.
Judaism had many rules about the *relatively* fair treatment of women, as well as men. While on the surface they might have seemed abusive, again they were *preferable* to the alternatives, at least to the people of those times.
Christianity was established as a persecuted minority, mostly of slaves, of the Roman Empire, so they did not have the luxury of making the rules as much. Those rules that did exist were enforceable only among Christians.
To cite, in Judaism:
“The biblical ability for fathers to sell their daughters into slavery was restricted by the classical sources, to extend only to pre-pubescent daughters, and only then as a last resort before the father had to sell himself; the sale was only regarded as complete when payment was received, or when a deed (referred to as the shetar) was written in the name of the daughter’s father.
“Although the biblical text clearly differentiates between selling daughters with the intention of their marriage, and other forms of slavery, the Talmud argued that when a pre-pubescent girl was sold into slavery, their master had to marry her, or marry her to his son, when she started puberty; if the master failed to marry the girl, or marry her to his son, she was to be freed.
“The classical rabbis instructed that masters could never marry female slaves - they would have to be manumitted first; similarly, they ruled that male slaves could not be allowed to marry Jewish women.
“By contrast, masters were given the right to the services of the wives of any of their slaves, if the enslaved husband had been sold into slavery by a court of law.
“Unlike the biblical instruction to sell thieves into slavery (if they were caught during daylight, and couldn’t repay the theft), the rabbis ordered that female Israelites could never be sold into slavery for this reason.”
Christianity, not having the liberty to write the detailed rules of the treatment of women, struggled with slavery for 18 centuries before finally discarding it. So misogyny existed within Christianity *not* because of the Bible, but in the absence of declarative Biblical doctrines.
It’s also clear and fair to point out that if we are to sit down and look at, for example, who can be religious ‘leaders’, that most men do not qualify either.
In the OT you had to be a male from the tribe of Levi. Certainly not one of the biggest tribes. Certainly there were godly men from the 11 other tribes, who probably could have done a better job than many Levite guys could. How unfair, right?
In the NT they have qualifications for elders, deacons and overseers (their terms). Many men again, would not qualify because they could not hit all the standards. Again, how unfair, no?
God sets the standards who He wants to serve and in what capacities. In the OT case we have it from His mouth in Leviticus dictated to Moses. In the NT we have it from the Holy Spirit speaking through the Apostles. It is 100% fair for God to set the criteria as to whom He wants to be spiritual leaders. We are spiritual leaders with our families, we can lead christian groups, we can be on boards and committees, only a few can qualify to be spiritual leaders of the congregation in the role of the pastor.
They are nowadays worthless words which indicate more about who said them than who they were directed at.
Joy Behar uses them all more than anyone I've ever seen.
She think using them makes her righteous and morally superior to those she disagrees with.
Wrong...and they don't make her thinner either.
Thanks for an objective and informative post. But can you give the references to the Jewish source? I would like to add it so an article: http://www.astorehouseofknowledge.info/Slavery#The_Bible_and_slavery
Sad to say it’s on a Wiki. But at least the Wiki is footnoted, so there should be some reasonable sources there.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Judaism_and_slavery
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christianity_and_slavery
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