Posted on 10/07/2010 8:20:07 AM PDT by marshmallow
I suggest both the NASB & ESV are as much or more concerned with accuracy than the RSV. The KJV was specifically translated to support a hierarchical church structure.
“The Catholic bible is the only non-corrupted biblical text.”
No.
True -- but wouldn't this make it harder for someone conversant with Biblical Hebrew to read modern Hebrew, rather than the other way aroud?
(2) a pretty much complete abandonment of the Biblical Hebrew tense system and replacement with a modified tense system related to those of European languages and
True, and it takes some getting used to. OTOH, the Hebrew verb is really simple in terms of number of forms. Biblical Hebrew has a perfect tense, roughly corresponding to past, and an imperfect, roughly corresponding to future (except when they mean the opposite!). What serves as the present tense in modern Hebrew is originally a sort of participial form, which still also serves as a participle and sometimes a substantive. Biblical Hebrew is far more likely to attach an enclitic for the direct object to the verb, but it's not unknown in modern Hebrew, just sort of "highbrow" on the whole, as is the use of attached possessives.
(3) a replacement of Biblical Hebrew's paratactic sentence structure with far more relative clauses and a completely different word order, basically the same sentence structure as English.
Sort of -- much less pronounced a difference in modern scholarly or literary writing (not to mention poetry) than in general conversational usage. And I learned to avoid a lot of errors in sentence structure (and sequence of tenses) by hearing Israelis' mistakes in English, assuming (turns out correctly) that they were mentally translating from Hebrew.
I don't think it adds up to a "different" language, though there's room to differ. As in "When is a dialect a language?"
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