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To: annalex; 1000 silverlings; Alex Murphy; Belteshazzar; bkaycee; blue-duncan; boatbums; caww; ...
No, because like you yourself commented in your previous post she understood that married people have children. But she was engaged to be married, yet she wondered how was it possible for her to have children. This indicates that she did not intend to have carnal relations with Joseph.

Since when is sex within the bounds of marriage *carnal relations*? What is it with the Catholic mind that views sex as something wrong or dirty?

Mary simply asked the obvious question of how it was possible for her to become pregnant because she had not YET had sex, not because she never intended to.

Her never intending to affects her future, not her present. That would be a stupid question to ask if what she meant was what you say she meant.

How can I be come pregnant as I never intend to have sex with Joseph?

That's just silly.

5,058 posted on 12/09/2010 8:15:55 PM PST by metmom (Welfare was never meant to be a career choice.)
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To: metmom

Deliberately silly. It’s a joke to some, IMO.


5,061 posted on 12/09/2010 8:20:55 PM PST by presently no screen name
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To: metmom; 1000 silverlings; Alex Murphy; Belteshazzar; bkaycee; blue-duncan; boatbums; caww
Since when is sex within the bounds of marriage *carnal relations*?

"Carnal" means "of the flesh" and "relations" means between two people. Yup, sex is carnal relations as it is an activity done between two people in the flesh.

Mary simply asked the obvious question of how it was possible for her to become pregnant because she had not YET had sex

The answer to that is also obvious: by marrying Joseph and having sex with him. Every girl old enough to be engaged to be married knows that and needs not ask.

How can I be come pregnant as I never intend to have sex with Joseph?

That is exactly what Mary was asking. The answer was, God, not Joseph, will give you a child.

5,355 posted on 12/14/2010 5:43:33 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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