[count-your-change]

“I explained how Luke 1:34 allows us to conclude that Mary did not intend to have sex with Joseph her husband following the marriage.”

Ummm...NO..... Mary says, “How shall be this since man not I am knowing”. (Luke 1:34)

“shall be” is the future and “not I am knowing” is present. Mary says she is not at the time she is speaking ‘knowing’ a man and says nothing about her intents or future. To conclude from her statement something otherwise is simply reading into it what one wants it to say.

[annalex]

Mary says she is not at the time she is speaking ‘knowing’ a man and says nothing about her intents or future

Then her question is meaningless, because naturally women get to intimately know their husband in order to have children born to them.