It says there that grace is not of works.
You conclude because it doesn't describe what those works are you can then assume it excludes your "works of love".
No, Eph 2:8-10 does not exclude any works, and I never said it does. It says that grace is not a result of any works whatsoever. It helps to understand the argument you are attempting to respond to.
Yet there are other verses such as Titus 3:5
Titus 3:5-8 follows the same pattern as Eph 2:8-10:
[5] Not by the works of justice, which we have done, but according to his mercy, he saved us, by the laver of regeneration, and renovation of the Holy Ghost; [6] Whom he hath poured forth upon us abundantly, through Jesus Christ our Saviour: [7] That, being justified by his grace, we may be heirs, according to hope of life everlasting. [8] It is a faithful saying: and these things I will have thee affirm constantly: that they, who believe in God, may be careful to excel in good works.
The grace that alone saves us is not a result of our works, but good works are necessary for salvation.
We are saved by grace. We do not nor can we earn or merit salvation because sin must be atoned. The wages of sin is death, not good works, works of love, etc. Jesus made that atonement for us and we receive this grace from God by faith in him. The Texas two-step won't work here. You can't on one hand say we are saved by grace and then on the other say it is by faith AND works. If it is by grace, it can't be by works and vice versa.
Romans 11:6 And if by grace, then it is no longer of works; otherwise grace is no longer grace. But if it is of works, it is no longer grace; otherwise work is no longer work.