Well, actually, maybe not, because where would His other 50% come from? There was no human male involved.
But at any rate, we are not just bodies but body-soul combinations, so whatever Mary contributed to the body of Christ, His human soul and divinity certainly did not come from her.
But at any rate, we are not just bodies but body-soul combinations, so whatever Mary contributed to the body of Christ, His human soul and divinity certainly did not come from her."
The Nicene Fathers explained this nearly 1700 years ago, Claud (I'm not showing off; the Greek is important to an understanding of what happened):
καὶ εἰς ἕνα Κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν τὸν υἱὸν τοῦ Θεοῦ τὸν Μονογενῆ, τὸν ἐκ τοῦ Πατρὸς γεννηθέντα πρὸ πάντων τῶν αἰώνων, Φῶς ἐκ Φωτός, Θεὸν ἀληθινὸν ἐκ Θεοῦ ἀληθινοῦ, γεννηθέντα οὐ ποιηθέντα, ὁμοούσιον τῷ Πατρί, δι' οὗ τὰ πάντα ἐγένετο· τὸν δι' ἡμᾶς τοὺς ἀνθρώπους καὶ διὰ τὴν ἡμετέραν σωτηρίαν κατελθόντα ἐκ τῶν οὐρανῶν, καὶ σαρκωθέντα ἐκ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου καὶ Μαρίας τῆς παρθένου, καὶ ἐνανθρωπήσαντα,
The specific answer to what the Theotokos "added" is this, but only also from the Holy Spirit:
καὶ σαρκωθέντα ἐκ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου καὶ Μαρίας τῆς παρθένου, καὶ ἐνανθρωπήσαντα
Precisely. Yet there remains this inexplicable desire to elevate Mary, the mortal, biological mother of Jesus, into equivalency with Him as participating in the godhead with all the divine powers implied therein.
What’s the problem? Is not God’s Messiah sufficient unto the Father’s purpose in begetting Him? Was not the sacrifice of the Christ sufficient to atone for the sins of the world? The Holy Scriptures teach that it is. Are we to doubt and contradict the clear words of holy writ, and invent an alternative or parallel path to salvation?
The word “blasphemy” comes readily to mind in contemplating Mariolatry.