“To deny what this passage says is to deny the entire context of why this passage was written.”
Oh. How is arguing that Mary was a perpetual virgin contrary to the Virgin Birth?
That’s a rather difficult argument.
“because Joseph had not KNOWN his wife before that”
Mary wasn’t Joseph’s wife, until after Christ was born, which is why it’s worded this way. You are assuming that ‘till’ heoS refers to him not knowing her, not to the fact that he didn’t accept her to be his wife until after Christ was born.
Which is why you’ve just said that Mary was Joseph’s wife prior to Jesus being born.
“If they never KNEW each other this sentence would not have said UNTIL Jesus was born, but it would have simply been “Joseph did not EVER know Mary” period.”
You seem to like arguing from silence. The verse is not the same as the sentence the sentence starts in verse 24 and carries on through verse 25. Until refers to Joseph accepting Mary.
You know the whole he wasn’t married yet thing is a joke, given they were Jewish and engaged. An engagement then was marriage. Which is why Joseph was planning to divorce her, because the pledge of marriage was regarded as LEGAL and it would take LEGAL ACTION form Joseph to end it (Divorce).
Further Matthew 1:18 also says this - KJV:
Mt 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was like this; for after his mother, Mary, was engaged to Joseph, before they came together, she was found pregnant by the Holy Spirit.
“Before they came together” is not about them being married, the context is clear, it is about sexual union.
But we may a well just go our way, we will not change each others’ minds. Take care.
“Oh. How is arguing that Mary was a perpetual virgin contrary to the Virgin Birth?”
The two are as dissimilar as the day is long. The Virgin Birth is Biblical — it’s true — Mary was a virgin. But, as I have asked you over and over and over in another thread, please, please, PLEASE show me in scripture where Mary is shown to have been born sinless?
“Mary wasn’t Joseph’s wife, until after Christ was born, which is why it’s worded this way. You are assuming that ‘till’ heoS refers to him not knowing her, not to the fact that he didn’t accept her to be his wife until after Christ was born.”
Uh, no. I don’t think Secret Agent Man (if I can call you SAM?) meant anything about when Christ was born; he was referring to the “till” as in Joseph did not know (as in the Biblical sense) Mary TILL Christ was born. The issue that Mary and Joseph weren’t married until after the birth is inconsequential to the fact that SAM is saying Joseph didn’t KNOW (have intercourse) with Mary until AFTER Christ was born (the ‘till’ in question).
Mary + Josepth betrothed. Angel visits. Mary gives birth to Jesus. THEN (till, in this argument) Joseph knows her. Nice try to re-direct the argument, but again, your argument fails.
Hoss