Once again, you allude to some mysterious point without offering any substance with which to back it up. Namely a Bible verse.
I couldn't have gotten a better example if I had paid for it.
Yeah. Bummer how all that paying for absolution of sins and whatnot went away in the 1500s or 1600s or thereabouts.
I'm sure up till then you could allude to some mysterious teaching to justify the practice.
What changed? Hmmmmm...
Try reading the whole thread, from the beginning.