His first big blunder is trying tell us that Jesus name means salvation. It does not. It is highly deceptive.
First of all, if you go to The Blue Letter Bible online and look up Jesus in the Greek Testament, his name is Ἰησοῦς or Yehoshua, Which means G-d is salvation. Christians call him Yeshua, which is Hebrew is יְשׁוּעָה which is the Greek form of Joshua. So, in Hebrew it is, יְהוֹשׁוּעַ which means salvation but the problem is, that word is a feminine noun and is NEVER used as a name for someone. The other Yeshua in Hebrew that is a name is יֵשׁוּעַ is pronounced the same way (not exactly but very close)and is spelled different! It does not have a HEY on the end. And it DOES NOT mean salvation...it means HE IS SAVED.
So it is total deception to use the name Yeshua=salvation. Jesus name was Joshua per the NT.
Then he says this: Recently I met with a wonderful Orthodox rabbi and asked him: “How would the Jewish people recognize Moshiach when he comes?” He told me, “Moshiach would fulfill a number of predetermined signs that are known only by the sages”
That is either a total lie or he was not talking to an Orthodox Rabbi. The moshiach will perform a number of tasks that are CLEARLY articulated in Tanakh(OT) and therefore it will take NO FAITH to believe that messiah has arrived because it will be plainly observed by ALL MANKIND. Jesus did not fulfill any of these tasks. Therefore he isnt the one.
Then he says: In fact, what I’ve found most interesting in my research of Judaism is the inability of modern Jewsnot counting messianic Jews who believe in Moshiach to reconcile how the Servant Songs of Isaiah 42 and 53 can be fulfilled in one person, namely Y’shua.
The inability of modern Jews to reconcile? This is bunk. The reason why Jews dont accept Jesus as the suffering messiah of Isaiah is because the text is about Israel-the jewish people and says so plainly.
Isaiah For I am the Lord your God, the Holy One of Israel, your Savior;Since you are dear in My eyes, you were honored and I loved you. But you, Israel My servant(Singular), Jacob whom I have chosen, the seed of Abraham, who loved Me, "You are My witnesses,"(Israel in the plural) says the Lord, "and My servant(Israel in the singular) whom I chose," And now, hearken, Jacob My servant(Singular), and Israel whom I have chosen...Remember these, O Jacob; and Israel, for you are My servant(singular); etc...
Isaiah clearly identifies the Servant who suffers...Israel! The jewish people. If you have any doubts, look at the Roman slaughter of the Bar Kochba rebellion, The Crusades, The Inquisition, The many pogroms of Europe, Jews slaughtered and kick out of every country in Europe. and the crowning achievement of the goyim, the Holocaust. Even today, only 60 odd years after the mass murder of the Nazi's, Jews are considered viruses, untermenchen, subhuman, pigs, monkeys, apes, demons, vampires, mongrels etc...the only way to stuff 1.5 million children and 4.5 million adults into ovens,mass graves, gas chambers is to first mar their visage beyond that of a man. Jesus, although scouraged, was still identifiable on the cross and no one thought of him as sub-human.
Then he says this: As a result, Jewish sages looked for a two-Messiah solution—one who would die for the sins of the people and another who would come to reign as king. They called the first Messiah ben Joseph (son of Joseph), and the second they called Messiah ben David (son of David). They taught that Messiah ben Joseph would be killed in the Battle of Gog and Magog and that the Messiah ben David would come, win the battle, and raise Messiah ben Joseph from the dead. Today, this theory still exists. However, many Jews, including some Orthodox Jews, have supplanted Messiah ben Joseph as the suffering servant with the theory that Israel is the suffering servant.
Wrong again. messiah ben joseph is prophsied to be killed in a great war Zech 12:10. A midrash (like a sermon) speculates that messiah ben Joseph will be the first of all the resurrections that we (the righteous of G-d) will all experience at the end of days. And he is STILL a different personage than messiah ben David. The two messiahs (two of many many messiahs mind you) are living at the same time. Cant be Jesus.
That is about as far as I want to go with this guy. He doesnt know what he is talking about.
Hey Blasater!
Glad to hear your opinion on this..What did you think of the part concerning *Islam* and Allah? I thought that was quite remarkable and how he equated that with the hidden name of *Lucifer*
Also do you believe the the *Gap Theory* that many ascribe to in Genesis 1 and 2?
Oh,
One other thing I wanted to ask you....it was concerning his book, do you think the *Holocaust* was already being prophecized in the Book of Isaiah and Zachariah? he said that horror that the Jewish People went through was a *Sacrafice for Israel* so the land of Israel could be establised again as the prophets said...
I just never heard of it put that way in Scripture....
Maybe this will help TaraP out.
Some of the NT is accurate, some is in error. Some of the errors were sincere mistakes, some were deliberate mis-translations.
The discrepancy in Acts also shows that there are errors in the NT. When the Masoretic text of the O(riginal) Testament was translated into Greek, some deliberate mis-translations and or deliberate mis-transliterations occured.
Jewish Rabbis translated the first 5 books, but that is all that they translated. Which also might explain the falsification of Yeshua's name.
Anyone that thinks that Jewish parents, that were strong adherents to the Judaic principles and lived in a Jewish contextual setting would give their son a Greek name is lacking in common sense.
The use of the name 'Jesus' is evidence that Christian leaders promote intentional error for the sake of tradition.
Whereas one could argue the early Greek name of Iesous may have been an innocent mistake, there is no excuse why today's Christian leaders continue to willfully promote a name for their messiah that is undeniably false.
The point is that there is a big difference between a translation and a transliteration, and 'Jesus' originates from a transliteration, NOT a translation of their Messiah's name. So, 'Jesus' is a defective pronunciation of the original Greek word, Iesous, which was a transliteration - NOT a translation - of their messiah's actual Hebrew name. The most profound fact, however, is that Christian leaders know this yet continue to intentionally misrepresent truth. They knowingly promote a false name for their messiah.
Acts 7 (KJV)
45 Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;
Hebrews 4 (KJV)
8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
Acts 7 (NASB)
45 "And having received it in their turn, our fathers (1) brought it in with Joshua upon dispossessing the nations whom God drove out before our fathers, until the time of David.
Hebrews 4 (NASB)
8 For (1) if Joshua had given them rest, He would not have spoken of another day after that.
In BOTH of these verses the person being referred to is Joshua - the servant of Moses that lead Israel into the promised land. The reason the KJV says 'Jesus' is because it comes from the exact same Greek word, Iesous, and the King James Version translators apparently did not catch the error.
These verses help to further understand the difference between translation and transliteration. 'Joshua' is NOT a transliteration, but it does come from the Greek word Iesous, which IS a transliteration. 'Joshua' is a correct translation from the original Hebrew and is the actual "english translation" of their messiah's name. The translators CORRECTLY rendered 'Joshua' because they knew it to be the TRUE translation of the original Hebrew name for the servant of Moses. In short, they ignored the Greek transliteration, Iesous, because they knew it to be faulty.
If the translators of Scripture elsewhere, especially in the O(riginal) Testament and also in most modern versions of the New Testament, CORRECTLY render the SAME Greek word, Iesous, as 'Joshua' in Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8, why do they refuse to correct the false rendering of 'Jesus' for the name of their messiah? IT IS THE SAME GREEK WORD! The English equivalent of their messiah's name is 'Joshua' (Yeshua, Yahshua, Yehosua), NOT 'Jesus'.
Why is their messiah's name correctly translated ONLY in the cases where it doesn't apply to him? Why does Christianity willfully refuse to correctly render their messiah's Hebrew name even when they correctly render the exact same Greek word in cases where he is not the one being referenced?
This shows that even translators know 'Jesus' is NOT correct.
There was no J common in the English language until around the 16th century. Prior to that time, those words now shown with a J were pronounced as though the J was a Y. So 'Joshua', even in English, is proven conclusively to be (Yeshua, Yahshua, or Yehoshua) when the original Y sound is used. Thus, it is IMPOSSIBLE for 'Jesus' to be anything close to the true name, because the 'J' sound did not exist when he was alive!
Did you catch that? The name 'Jesus' is proven to be incorrect simply from the fact the word 'Jesus' did not exist until only 500 years ago because there was no such thing as a J in the language!
This fact, alone, shows that 'Jesus' is a false name for their messiah.
IF the church can't even get the name right - one of THE most basic things - how can one believe their other doctrines are correct? If church leaders can't get the name right, I'm not going to trust them with anything else - especially not my eternal soul!