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So, in other words, Matthew 12:40 is a special verse which is elevated above all other Scripture. All the rest of Scripture is to be interpreted using it, and it is not subject to interpretation itself. Notice again that this verse is unique in that it indicates a resurrection on the fourth day, since it says that it will be three full days and nights before the resurrection. Everywhere else in the New Testament the resurrection is described as occurring on the third day.

I do not understand your question. How does one elevate Christ's own WORDS? Either He meant what He said or He was just passing time with empty chatter. Now personally speaking, Jonah getting swallowed up in an obviously 'special' creature created to get the attention of the peoples of Nineveh whose 'god' was a fish god called Dagon was done for and by Divine purpose. Christ made Jonah one and the same as the 'Gospel' by quoting from and likening Himself as serving the same purpose.

Christ Himself made the events of and in Jonah's purpose and life journey more than just an allegory or myth.

We are not told the exact hour in which the tomb was vacated. What we are told is that when the women came to check before the dawn on the first day of the week the tomb was empty.

But we are told by Peter that while in the tomb IPeter 3:18- chapter 4 that Christ in particular 3:19 (I am not going to type it all) 19 By which also He went and preached unto the spirits in prison, 20, Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water... 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

Now my 'guess' is that upon completion of the 72 hours is when the resurrection took place and there was no 'flesh' being around to witness the action of Christ emptying the literal tomb. After all Christ demonstrated His resurrected body by going through that wall. The wall was real but His physical body was no longer in flesh held by gravity disposition.

I'll explain it again. According to Matthew 12:40 the resurrection will occur on the fourth day, since it specifies three days and nights elapsing before that event. Yet everywhere else Christ mentions the resurrection it is described as occurring on the third day.

In Matthew 20:19 Christ specifically says that the third day is the day he will rise again.

He says the same in Mark 9:31 and 10:34. Also Luke 18:33.

So the question is: by what authority does Matthew 12:40 overrule Matthew 20:19 or Mark 10:34? Why is this one verse superior to all others?

And the other, related, question is whether there is more to Matthew 12:40 than meets the eye?