[Just mythoughts]

I'll explain it again. According to Matthew 12:40 the resurrection will occur on the fourth day, since it specifies three days and nights elapsing before that event. Yet everywhere else Christ mentions the resurrection it is described as occurring on the third day. In Matthew 20:19 Christ specifically says that the third day is the day he will rise again. He says the same in Mark 9:31 and 10:34. Also Luke 18:33. So the question is: by what authority does Matthew 12:40 overrule Matthew 20:19 or Mark 10:34? Why is this one verse superior to all others? And the other, related, question is whether there is more to Matthew 12:40 than meets the eye?

The time of death took place during the day on what we now call Wednesday. It took hours to get Him down off the cross, His body prep and the tomb closed. Two different times are being discussed. We are NOT told the exact time the tomb was closed but that He was to be in the tomb, the *three days and three nights* as described likened to the only 'sign' that had already been given like Jonah.

Now every Christian should know that when the flesh body dies, instantly the 'soul/spirit' returns to the Maker that sent it. That comes from way back to Solomon in Ecclesastiaes 12. So literally what was 'dead' was the flesh body and it was the flesh body that was placed in the tomb. The Spirit of Christ never died, only His flesh vessel that was entombed.

And we are NOT told the hour when this 3 days and 3 nights began, and we are NOT told exactly when it ended. Only that His flesh body would be entombed for that amount of time. And we are told when the women went to check on Him and He was already gone.

Two different subjects are described, death of the flesh on the cross and the time His literal body was to be sealed in the tomb.

[wideawake]

To clarify: Matthew 12:40, under your interpretation, involves three full chronological days and nights - placing the resurrection on the fourth day after the crucifixion.

However, every place else the chronology of the resurrection is mentioned, it is on the third day. Not the fourth.

Your timeline is based purely and solely on your personal interpretation of one verse. I ask again: why does Matthew 12:40 have more authority than Matthew 20:19?

If we are to accept your thesis that Matthew 12:40 overrules Matthew 20:19, we need to know why.