[Cronos]

1 Tim clearly states that first the bishop must be blameless. He should be at most a husband of one wife (not multiple wives) -- there is no criteria that if he does not have a wife its bad, also what happens if the bishop is a widow? No, 1 Tim 3:2 is not negated -- also look at this in contrast to 1 tim 3:12 "Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife" -- in contrast to 1 tim 3:2 "a bishop then must be blameless , the husband of..."

1 tim 3:4 says One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; -- so, if his children as unruly and not in subjection, should he then resign?

[CA Conservative]

My point is that the Catholic Church adds a requirement (that a bishop cannot be married) that is not found in scripture. I am not saying scripture requires that a bishop be married, but Paul clearly anticipated that many would be.

As I said, the Catholic Church can make whatever rules it likes for its clergy - as long as it doesn’t try to claim scriptural authority for this one, I don’t care.