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To: rzman21

“Luther twisted the words of scripture with his translation to make them conform with his heretical theology.”

No, he did not. If you have specific passages, feel free to cite them. Remember, Luther was NOT trying for a literal translation, but a thought for thought translation.

Of course, the Catholic Church COULD have provided a vernacular translation, but as a matter of policy it refused, and in fact strongly and sometime violently OPPOSED allowing commoners to read scripture. As I have already documented.


56 posted on 11/01/2011 8:38:36 PM PDT by Mr Rogers ("they found themselves made strangers in their own country")
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To: Mr Rogers

How about a creative translation? Does that work for you?

What you have documented is Protestant propaganda.


59 posted on 11/01/2011 8:40:26 PM PDT by rzman21
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To: Mr Rogers
Yes, because they rejected the priesthood of the individual believers, a doctrine Luther held correctly to and written of by Peter.

1Pe 2:5 Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

144 posted on 11/02/2011 2:07:37 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration (When the wicked beareth rule, the people mourn (Pr.29:2))
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