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To: verga
So when Jesus says "This is my body.... This is my blood..."; the simple explanation would be the best rather than the convoluted "Well you see it is actually a metaphor..." If you are going to be consistent then you need to agree with the Catholic undertanding of that phrase.

If he was being literal then he was being very specific. THIS is my body. THIS is my blood. Meaning THAT bread and THAT wine that he was physically holding in his hand at THAT time.

He did NOT say "All future ceremonies where bread and wine are used are ALSO my blood and my body."

So literally, if you want to go that route, THAT was the only bread that was his body and the only wine that was his blood.

63 posted on 11/26/2011 8:27:51 AM PST by DouglasKC
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To: DouglasKC

Paul tells us in his first letter to the Corinthians that this teaching is so important that Jesus Himself taught it to Paul.

what did Jesus teach Paul?

“is not the bread we break a participation in THE BODY OF CHRIST”

the Scriptures do not teach anything other than the Real Presence in the Eucharist.

not only that, read St Ignatius, who was persoanlly taught by the Apostle John, when he says in 105ad that the Gnostics did not take the Eucharist because they did not believe it to be the flesh of Jesus Christ.

why anyone would believe the Gnostics were right, rather than what Christians have believed for 2,000 years, i will never know.

this teaching is folly to them.


67 posted on 11/26/2011 8:39:03 AM PST by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: DouglasKC
If he was being literal then he was being very specific. THIS is my body. THIS is my blood. Meaning THAT bread and THAT wine that he was physically holding in his hand at THAT time. He did NOT say "All future ceremonies where bread and wine are used are ALSO my blood and my body." So literally, if you want to go that route, THAT was the only bread that was his body and the only wine that was his blood.

I will gladly go that route. Lets take a look at the entire passage..."Luk 22:19 And he took bread, and when he had given thanks, he brake it, and gave to them, saying, This is my body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of me."

1) In the original Greek Jesus is not saying "This is my body" as in having ownership of something such as a book or a car. No he actually says "This is the body which is mine". Making is much more personal.

2) Also notice the the clause "This do in remembrance of me." He is telling them to repeat this event. Now this is where you say well it must be symbolic! But that is where you are woefully wrong. The word "remembrance" has special significance to the Jewish community. They were celebrating the Passover, the precursor to the Exodus. Jewish people consider the performance of the Passover ritual as an actual participation in the passover event. It is eternally present in the participation of that event.

Now at this point you are going to ask me to prove it, I will go you one better, I will let you prove it. Go to Askmoses.com they have Rabbis there that are specialist in various areas, find one that is an expert on the passover and languages.

75 posted on 11/26/2011 12:25:21 PM PST by verga (I am not an apologist, I just play one on television.)
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To: DouglasKC

I explained your error in post # 75, please address the points I made and the evidence I supplied.


78 posted on 11/27/2011 3:03:54 AM PST by verga (I am not an apologist, I just play one on television.)
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