Adam's death was because of his own sin. Christ's death was for the sin of the world.
There really is no equating the two. I don't see that Scripture as supporting the idea that a man who died because he was fallen and because he sinned is a "type" of the sinless, perfect Christ.
If you are going to insist on a literal interpretation, you must accept Romans 5:14:
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
"adam hos estin tupos tou mellontos"
"tupos" = type = figure (translated
There it is, explictly and insuperable --
For others observing, a helpful link:
(Don't be intransigeant - nudge nudge)
With sincere respect --