Of course he can; he just can't alter physics (or his predicament).
That argument is like saying that because the universe doesn't bend to my mere whim that my whim does not exist.
Free will is not the same as unbounded power/control, as you seem to imply. (Possession of free will is distinct from omnipotence.)
Did you chose your sex? Did your chose your parents? Did you choose your country or city of birth? Did you chose your intelligence?
All of these things were predestined by your creator.
And how does not being able to choose any of them alter free will? Again, you conflate unbounded power and free will.
He set up for you that parameters of the decisions and choices that will be available to you.
Wait... what? Didn't you just say earlier in the thread that everything was predestined? that I had no choice?
I can't find it, but some of your replies rather come off that way.
Jn 3:3 Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
Note here that Jesus says a man cannot SEE the kingdom of God. Man can not desire or choose what he can not see
Can you see the Holy Spirit? How then, if the Holy Spirit's job is to teach you, can you choose to listen if he must be visible to choose?
Further, if it is the holy Spirit that works in a man to bring him into a saving knowledge of Jesus, then how can that man choose to follow; after all he cannot see the Holy Spirit, and you have declared that one cannot choose what one does not see.
PS -- Lots of game shows prove you wrong; too. One certainly can choose what is unseen.
Our will was put in bondage in Eden. The will we have is the will of Adam. Only the new birth gives us a truly free will. The desire and the will to choose Christ
And you have said that God does not have any good intent for those who have not already been saved; is not the act of saving dependent on God's good will?
Post #36: If you are not saved he has no good intent for you..
Is it not obvious that God's saving is the ultimate act of good intent?
So then I ask, if God has no good intent for those who are not saved and being saved requires God's good intent then is it not true that no one can be saved?
The only way that someone could be saved in such a situation is if there is some other way to be saved; however, scripture plainly states that is not the case... therefore, because some have been saved the premises cannot both be true (as required by AND) so, which is false:
That being saved requires God's good intent?
Or that God has no good intent for those who are unsaved?
Indeed, Jesus shows us God's good intent toward us not only in his incarnation but in his teachings as well:but I -- I say to you, Love your enemies, bless those cursing you, do good to those hating you, and pray for those accusing you falsely, and persecuting you, that ye may be sons of your Father in the heavens, because His sun He doth cause to rise on evil and good, and He doth send rain on righteous and unrighteous.
Matt 5:44-47
`For, if ye may love those loving you, what reward have ye? do not also the tax-gatherers the same? and if ye may salute your brethren only, what do ye abundant? do not also the tax-gatherers so?
Or would you call God a hypocrite, commanding us to a higher standard of righteousness that He himself attains: if God has no good intent for the unsaved, then He does not love them, and if He does not love them who hate him (the unsaved) then He is commanding us to do something that even He does not do.
But this is obviously wrongheaded. God does show good will (that is good intent) toward even the unrighteous, the unsaved.
So, it must be your assertion that is in error. No?
So sending someone to a burning furnace that never cools for eternity is good intent?