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To: Salvation
Are you still not getting it? The Immaculate Conception is about Jesus Christ — have an immaculate womb for him.

I get it that that is what you are told to believe and to justify the unscriptural dogma, but it doesn't mean it is true. What is an "immaculate womb" anyway? According to Scripture, Mary was a virgin, she had never had sex with anyone, so her womb was inviolate, pure. That doesn't automatically have to mean she was a sinless human from birth. The miraculous part is that a virgin would conceive and bear a son. THAT was the prophecy. Nothing was ever said that this virgin would have to be free from all sin - such a person could not have existed because all mankind is under the sin of the first man, Adam. The miracle was Christ was God in the flesh. He was sinless because he is God, not because his mother was a normal human being. THAT is about Jesus.

29 posted on 12/07/2012 11:34:07 PM PST by boatbums (God is ready to assume full responsibility for the life wholly yielded to Him.)
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To: boatbums

she is the second eve (who was created sinless) and mary is also the ark of the convanent, which house the word...that was pure and inviolate as well, Mary was simply the living version of that.

housing the perfect god-man in a womb stained with original sin would not do at all....as the original ark was perfect for the word....so to was the womb that housed the living word.

not difficult at all to understand....just difficult to accept for those unwilling.


32 posted on 12/07/2012 11:51:28 PM PST by raygunfan
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To: boatbums

And, if you follow this logic, it would be necessary for Mary’s mother (and father, for that matter) to also be “free from all sin” in order to avoid contaminating Mary. In other words, where was the immaculate womb for Mary? Wouldn’t this be at least as necessary as a “sinless womb” for the Sinless One if you are to be consistent?

Thus, you set up a perpetual problem, for Mary’s parents’ progenitors would have had to be sinless as well, in order not to carry forward the stain.


35 posted on 12/08/2012 12:12:44 AM PST by fwdude ( You cannot compromise with that which you must defeat.)
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To: boatbums
justify the unscriptural dogma

Unscriptural in your opinion. You need to include that caveat.

If there were no defect in the Ark that contained the written word explain why you believe that there would have to be a defect in the Ark that carried the Word made flesh?

"Understanding this first, that no prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation. For prophecy came not by the will of man at any time: but the holy men of God spoke, inspired by the Holy Ghost." 2 Peter 1:20-21

"And account the longsuffering of our Lord, salvation; as also our most dear brother Paul, according to the wisdom given him, hath written to you: As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are certain things hard to be understood, which the unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, to their own destruction" 2 Peter 3:15-16

"It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of Mary’s soul was effected without original sin; so that in the very infusion of her soul she was also purified from original sin and adorned with God’s gifts, receiving a pure soul infused by God; thus from the first moment she began to live she was free from all sin." Martin Luther Sermon "On the Day of the Conception of the Mother of God" December 1527 AD.

37 posted on 12/08/2012 12:17:29 AM PST by A.A. Cunningham (Barry Soetoro can't pass E-verify)
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To: boatbums

Did you read the scripture above? It is not unscriptural!!!


56 posted on 12/08/2012 3:40:04 PM PST by Salvation ("With God all things are possible." Matthew 19:26)
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