Posted on 01/26/2013 7:52:48 AM PST by virgil283
..."the corresponding noun agape presents the characteristic word of Christianity, and since the Spirit of revelation has used it to express ideas previously unknown, inquiry into its use, whether in Greek literature or in the Septuagint, throws but little light upon its distinctive meaning in the New Testament. however, Lev. 19:18; Deut. 6:5. "Agape and agapao are used in the NT (a) to describe the attitude of God toward His Son, [John 17:26]; the human race, generally, [John 3:16]; [Rom 5:8]; and to such as believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, particularly, J[ohn 14:21]; (b) to convey His will to His children concerning their attitude one toward another, [John 13:34], and toward all men, 1 Thess. 3:12; 1 Cor. 16:14; 2 Pet. 1:7; (c) to express the essential nature of God, [1 John 4:8.]
"Love can be known only from the actions it prompts. God's love is seen in the gift of His Son, [1 John 4:9,10]. But obviously this is not the love of complacency, or affection, that is, it was not drawn out by any excellency in its objects, [Rom. 5:8]. It was an exercise of the Divine will in deliberate choice, made without assignable cause save that which lies in the nature of God Himself, Cp. [Deut. 7:7,8]. "
The Greek verb [agapan] does not necessarily mean God’s love. It is a carrier of many different senses of love. To say it means only one kind of love is fallacious (word/concept fallacy).
Consider the following verse from Luke:
“Woe unto you Pharisees! Fe ye love [agapate] the uppermost seats in the synagogues, and greetings in the markets.”(Luke 11:43)
Clearly [agapan] doesn’t have an unmarked meaning equivalent to God’s love. It only assumes this meaning in the proper context. In the above verse it takes on an unseemly and self-serving sense.
For a sound approach to lexical semantics (words and their meaning) consider the following by Moises Silva: “Biblical Words and Their Meaning: An Introduction to Lexical Semantics” (1983, ISBN 0-310-47981-9)
You are exactly right in this statement. Here is another verse that proves your point: "men loved the darkness rather than the Light" (Joh 3:19 NAU).
The word designates the kind or type of love that will perform acts of "self-sacrifice" for the object of their love.
Here are 2 passages that illustrate this point: "For God so loved (agape) that He gave. . ." (John 3:16) and, "Husbands, love (agape) your wives as Christ loved (agape) the church and gave Himself up for her" (Ephesians 5:25).
God loves you so very much that He took all your punishment for all your crimes, big and small, He paid all your debts, above and beyond what you owed and suffered your death which you most certainly deserved, then rose from the dead, eliminating your sin with a sea of forgetfullness and forever ruling from heaven that no one forever can ever bring them against you again..... Now thats God's kind of love..
I do take exception to this above and beyond what you owed . Christ did not suffer in the least degree or kind beyond what was necessary for salvation. True, He bore our sins in His body on the Cross (1 Peter 2:24), but only that much and no more. Where did you get the idea that He, on my behalf, paid for more sins than my guilt required? How could Jesus die for a sin that did not exist?
And where do you get the concept of "a sea of forgetfullness?" I searched my King Jim concordance and could find no reference to this place.
1. of human affection, to men: Matthew 5:43, "you shall love your neighbor." (to Christ) John 8:42; (to God)Matt. 22:37.
2. of divine love: (a) God's love: to men, Rom. 8:37; to Christ, Joh 3:35; (b) Christ's love: to men Mrk 10:21; to God Joh 14:31;
This is only a sampling of how the word is used in some of its 278 occurrences (both noun and verb forms).
My point to you is that the word does not only refer to God's love.
Isa 43:25 I, even I, am he that blotteth out thy transgressions for mine own sake, and will not remember thy sins.
Heb 8:12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
As for paying more than enough, Jesus paid for sin whether or not anyone recieves it. For example all the murders of Hitler or Stalin were paid for even though they refused salvation. "How could Jesus die for a sin that did not exist? Why did God make billions of stars we cannot even see? Jesus said if we being evil know how to give good gifts to our children how much more the Father would give us the Holy Ghost: God is more generous than a loving father would be.
On your point #2. of divine love: (a) God's love: to men -This definition IS what my post was about. Jesus was a living example of God's kind of love so much so when He combined loving God and likewise loving your neighbor as yourself the scribes: " after that durst ask him [any question] Mk12:28-34. They were stunned at his example of God's kind of love.
I hope this explains what I awkwardly tried to say and thanks for replying 'V'
Unfortunately liberals cannont comprehend the difference between agape and eros.
Did you not read my post?
If the Pharisees loved position and acclaim with God's kind of love,...
The nature of the Pharisees' love is diametrically opposed to "God's love." Look at 1 Corinthians 13 for a fully developed concept which embraces "God's love". It is most definitely not related to the Pharisee's selfish love.
Yet in each of these instances the same word is used as a carrier of the meaning established by the context. This is how words function. Not Vine's fallacious lexical semantics.
He paid all your debts, above and beyond what you owed and suffered your death which you most certainly deserved, then rose from the dead, eliminating your sin with a sea of forgetfullness and forever ruling from heaven that no one forever can ever bring them against you again..... Now thats God's kind of love..
Yes it is. And that is not this issue.
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