Replies

“The qualifications of apostleship are not the same as those of bishopric.”

Indeed, the qualifications for apostleship are superior.

“Paul wasn’t a husband, yet his instructions to husbands in Ephesians are still from God. He wasn’t a wife either, yet he gave instructions to wives. He needn’t be a bishop for his instructions regarding them to be understood and obeyed.”

He could instruct the bishops because his authority was superior to them. Ergo, if the superior position permits unmarried men, then so should the inferior one.

“As I posted earlier, “the husband of one wife” could have one of two possible meanings. But there’s one meaning it can’t have, and that’s “the husband of NO wife”. Otherwise Paul is speaking nonsense.”

The husband of but one wife - if you are married, you can only have one. It does not say that marriage is required. Don’t you think that Paul would have made it explicitly clear, if this were, in fact the case, by saying “unmarried men are forbidden to enter the episcopy?”

1 Corinthians 7:32-3 is very clear. Paul argues for the superiority of celibacy over the married life.

“One who is unmarried is concerned about the things of the Lord, how he may please the Lord; but one who is married is concerned about the things of the world, how he may please his wife, and his interests are divided.”

Now, how can one read this and reach the conclusion that marriage is required for the episcopy?

Now, how can one read this and reach the conclusion that marriage is required for the episcopy?

Why, nobody can. If you want to know the qualifications of a bishop, you'll have to look elsewhere - some place that lays out those qualifications.

He could instruct the bishops because his authority was superior to them.

No, my FRiend, he could instruct the bishops (or rather, Timothy and Titus and, through his letters, all of us) because he was speaking for Jesus. (After all, it is His flocks, not Paul's, which are to be shepherded by these bishops.) It is the inspiration from God which gives authority to Paul's instructions, whether to husbands, wives, children, evangelists such as Timothy and Titus, or churches to whom he wrote.

Ergo, if the superior position permits unmarried men, then so should the inferior one.

Where can I find that in the Bible? Cite the Scripture and that'll settle the matter.