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This was in your link: " Now we can understand why Rav Asi is of the opinion that the circumcision is directly connected to the mother’s state of purity, and why his opinion is if the mother has not become impure, there is no need to wait till the 8th day to circumcise". My question is, what does he mean by "if the mother has not become impure"?

Leviticus 12:1-5 --> "Then the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, “Speak to the children of Israel, saying: ‘If a woman has conceived, and borne a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days; as in the days of her customary impurity she shall be unclean. And on the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. She shall then continue in the blood of her purification thirty-three days. She shall not touch any hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary until the days of her purification are fulfilled". ‘But if she bears a female child, then she shall be unclean two weeks, as in her customary impurity, and she shall continue in the blood of her purification sixty-six days.

Is there an alternative to bearing a boy or a girl? Just wondering!

This is pretty esoteric stuff, but the reference is to cesarean section. It’s slightly more clear in the original source:

http://www.halakhah.com/shabbath/shabbath_135.html

Thanks for the reply, Former Fetus. Tomorrow I will read the link jjotto provided. Thanks, Jjotto.

Looks very interesting. Please let me know if you come about the answer to your question.

Best Regards,