The Lord Jesus Christ did not come to do away with the law, but to fulfill the law. In like manner, Christ did not come to do away with the word of God (the OT scriptures) but to embody it—all of it (”and the Word became flesh and dwelt among us.”)
To take Christ’s [apparent] “silence” on homosexuality as a sanction for it is such a stretch as to be laughable. In His historic context, just how much open homosexuality in Judea does one suppose the Lord encountered that would necessitate his speaking to it? But if He did encounter open homosexuality are we to really believe that He would have spoken any differently to “the one caught in the very act” than how He spoke with the adulterous woman in John 8?
Anything...ANYTHING understood about God’s view of sin prior to Christ’s appearing was unchanged by His appearing. It is God’s provision for the sinner that was [about to be] changed.
Amen!