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The fact that no comment of Jesus concerning homosexuality was recorded in the Bible is actually evidence that he accepted the standard Jewish prohibition of the practice. Had he disagreed, it would have been "news", so to speak, and would have been recorded as part of his divergence from the mainstream Judaism of his day. The topic of homosexuality was simply not a matter of controversy in his Jewish milieu (it was condemned) and did not even need to be discussed. It was only as Christianity began to spread out into the Gentile world - where homosexuality was widely accepted - that Christian authors began to explicitly address the issue.

There is an early (AD 90-110) Jewish-Christian document known as "The Didache" which was not included in the Bible but which is believed by most scholars to be an authentic expression of early, orthodox Christianity, and it has a very clear condemnation not only of homosexuality but also of abortion.

By the way, when referencing time, I still use "AD" rather than the absurd, politically correct usage of CE ("Common Era"). I don't know what "common era" is supposed to mean, but it still dates from the approximate time of the birth of Jesus, so in a way it's a distinction without a difference.

I suppose if I were still in college, my use of "AD" would get me in trouble with school authorities, even - or especially - at my old alma mater, Seattle U (Catholic/Jesuit), which has veered hard-left in recent years..