[CommerceComet]

Because that is the way it is done in the Greek.

What rule of Greek grammar would have Matthew refer to Peter with both masculine and feminine genders? It seems much more likely that Matthew is referring to two things, hence, the words of different genders.

[Iscool]

What rule of Greek grammar would have Matthew refer to Peter with both masculine and feminine genders? It seems much more likely that Matthew is referring to two things, hence, the words of different genders.

Of course Matthew is correct...

All one has to do is dump the fables and fallacies and ask Peter about it...