The implication of Matthew 5:20 is that no one can be righteous through his own efforts. That’s where Jesus comes in. He is our righteousness (Jeremiah 23:6; 1 Corinthians 1:30) when we receive him.
In order to understand that assertion, I would have to understand how the word "is" is being used in it - certainly not in the usual sense of "equality."
In other words, what does it mean to say that "He IS our righteousness?"
Does the quote perhaps means that Jesus somehow "confers" righteousness upon us? That he "imbues" us with righteousness?
That would be less puzzling than saying that he IS our righteousness.
In my opinion, a personal trait or quality of being cannot be conferred, and a substitute sacrifice (for it would have to be his "perfect sacrifice" - not his mere existence - that effects the forgiveness of sin) could not truly expatiate the sins of another.
But that's just my reading.
Regards,
No, the explicit and outright example in Matt 5 is that religious power in the hands of men corrupts the purpose of true religion - There is not one thing that Yeshua railed at the Pharisees for that was not added onto or taken away from the Torah. Theirs was a false righteousness that comes from lording one's 'perfection' over others. Think 'church lady'.
They certainly cannot be held up as 'being righteous' according to the Torah, because they did not keep the Torah. Their traditions had made it null.