Okay, let's try it a different way...in your opinion when did Jesus Christ's doctrine of the laying on of hands cease being part of the doctrine of traditional Christianity?
“Okay, let’s try it a different way...in your opinion when did Jesus Christ’s doctrine of the laying on of hands cease being part of the doctrine of traditional Christianity?”
Or, let’s try it the way I’ve been asking you to do. Why waste time running from it?: Where is there a mandate, anywhere in scripture, for the laying on of hands? When it says “Beleive and be baptized, and whoever does not believe is damned,” and again, “This day thou shalt be with me in Paradise,” based on the faith only of the Thief, why didn’t Christ make it clear that there was actually a lot MORE hoops to jump through? Is the Thief in hell or is he in heaven? When the Ethiopian walked off rejoicing, why didn’t Luke comment and say “But the Ethiopian shouldn’t have been rejoicing, since his conversion was cut short, contrary to our teachings.” And, where, in scripture, is the doctrine of the laying on of hands actually spelled out?
That last one is the most important one. WHAT is the doctrine of the laying on of hands? What does it actually SAY? And, if it is so important, why is there no explicit command to perform it?
How come you can’t answer these questions first? I asked them first of you, didn’t I? Why should I respond to you, when I’ve answered you plenty of times already, and you’ve not had the good-will to reciprocate?