Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article

To: Petrosius
“Porneia” which your translation gives as “fornication” refers to an illicit relationship between the man and woman who divorce, not adultery in violation of the marriage. To read it otherwise would make no sense to the reply of our Lord.

It's not only my translation, it the Catholic Douay translation as well...

Your explanation doesn't make much sense to me...If a man or woman fools around after the divorce then it is adultery???

19 posted on 03/17/2014 8:51:09 AM PDT by Iscool (Ya mess with me, you mess with the WHOLE trailer park...)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 17 | View Replies ]


To: Iscool
It's not only my translation, it the Catholic Douay translation as well…

I am not taking issue with the translation, only pointing out that there are various translations because the term has not direct English equivalent. In fact, I like this translation. Fornication can only take place before marriage. If our Lord had meant marital infidelity as an exception then he would have called it adultery, as he calls those who remarry after divorce.

If a man or woman fools around after the divorce then it is adultery???

Why yes:

But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery. (Matt. 5:32)

I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery. (Matt. 19:9)

Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and the one who marries a woman divorced from her husband commits adultery. (Lk. 16:18)

What is adultery within a supposed second marriage is surely also adultery without even the benefit of this second false marriage.

Notice that in Matthew 19 Jesus precedes these words with a rejection of the Mosaic law allowing divorce:

He said in reply, “Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female’ and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has joined together, no human being must separate.”

They said to him, “Then why did Moses command that the man give the woman a bill of divorce and dismiss [her]?”

He said to them, “Because of the hardness of your hearts Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. (Matt. 19:4-8)

None of these remarks would make any sense if adultery or any other reason would allow for divorce and remarriage.
26 posted on 03/17/2014 10:29:51 AM PDT by Petrosius
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 19 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson