“And the angel came in unto her, and said, hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.” - Luke 1:28
It is the term “full of grace” that is emphasized by the Church when dealing with Mary’s Immaculate Conception. The title “full of grace” comes from the Greek word kecharitomene, which describes a “perfection” and “abundance” of grace. In other words, Mary was proclaimed by the angel to be with a perfection of grace, which was a very powerful statement. How can Mary be completely and perfectly with God’s grace, yet still have sin left in her? Christians eventually came to recognize that it was extremely possible for Mary to be without sin, especially if she was completely filled with God’s grace. Luke 1:28 happens to be the only place in the Bible where anyone is addressed with the important title of “full of grace.”
“…the Holy Ghost shall come upon you, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow you: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of you shall be called the Son of God.” - Luke 1:35
Luke 1:35 shows Mary as the Ark of the New Covenant. According to the Old Testament, the Ark of the Covenant was the pure and holy vessel that held the Ten Commandments (the Old Covenant). The Ark was so holy in fact, that if anyone where to touch it they could actually fall down and die! It was housed in the Holy of Holies, which was a perfectly clean place where the Jewish high priests could enter only once a year according to their law (See Lev. 16:2-4). So how are Mary and the Ark related? The same language that describes God’s “dwelling” place for the Old Ark is used again for Mary’s overshadowing by the Holy Spirit. Put another way, the Old Ark held God’s Ten Commandments and could not be touched by human hands because of its holiness. Mary, the New Ark, holds the New Covenant in her womb, which is Jesus Christ. How much holier is Christ than the Ten Commandments? It only makes sense that for Mary to hold God in her womb, she too would be completely pure and without any sin.
“I will put enmity between you and the woman, between your seed (offspring) and hers; He (she) will crush your head while you strike at his (her) heel.” - Genesis 3:15
What does the book of Genesis have to do with Mary’s Immaculate Conception? Genesis 3:15 is the first passage in the Bible that refers to Jesus defeating Satan on the cross. It is also the first verse that shows us how Mary would become the New Eve. The seed of the woman, who would crush the serpent’s head, is Jesus. The woman at enmity, or hostility with the serpent, is Mary. It was God who put this hostility between Mary and Satan (the serpent), and it is believed to be in the same likeness as Christ’s hostility for the seed of the serpent. What exactly does all this mean? For Mary to be like Christ in His hostility for Satan forever, it is very possible to say that this passage implies Mary’s lack of sin. What better way is there to be in total hostility with Satan than to be in God’s constant grace? As the New Eve, Mary undid the “no” of the Old Testament Eve by saying, “yes” to carry Jesus.
In actuality, it is only the RCC that translates the term κεχαριτωμένη in Luke 1:28 as 'full of grace.' Not even the New Jerusalem Bible translates it that way.
The title “full of grace” comes from the Greek word kecharitomene, which describes a “perfection” and “abundance” of grace. ... Luke 1:28 happens to be the only place in the Bible where anyone is addressed with the important title of “full of grace.”
κεχαριτωμένη is the passive participle form of χαριτόω which means 'to bestow favor on,' or 'to favor highly' ...
The claim that κεχαριτωμένη is a title is simply nonsense, this is not a title ... its a participle, used as an adjective to describe Mary ... and you would have already missed points on a 1st semester Greek midterm for this misstep.
Mary was proclaimed by the angel to be with a perfection of grace, which was a very powerful statement.
That's not what Gabriel said at all ... again, the meaning of the verb is "to bestow favor upon."
How can Mary be completely and perfectly with God’s grace, yet still have sin left in her?
And so now your error begins to build upon itself ...
Christians Roman Catholics eventually came to recognize that it was extremely possible for Mary to be without sin
Whereas the text of the Bible says no such thing ... but you have incorrectly understood the Greek text and have fancied yourself into a corner where now the error must be compounded.
Luke 1:28 happens to be the only place in the Bible where anyone is addressed with the important title of “full of grace.”
Again, its not a title ... and btw ... there is only one person and one place in the Bible where someone is said to be FULL OF GRACE ...
John 1:14 ... ὁ λόγος ... πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
The Word ... full of grace and truth.
Here endeth the lesson.