[imardmd1]

Wrong again. Peter, in his own words, was primarily writing to people of his Jewish race specifically, converted Jews of Israel who had been scattered in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, and giving them information as to how Jews foreign to those areas ought to relate to the natives of those areas. He was not writing to particular churches with problems particular to the church, nor to individuals in conducting personal affairs, as Paul was.

You've got your contexts mixed up, looks like. That will influence how the written material is to be interpreted and applied, as to the literal and/or figurative-literal sense. Nuances are important, here. At least, the well-known comentators suggest that.

[imardmd1]

I missed something here. You had written "gentile northern Israelites" in post #70. You're going to have to explain to me what a gentile Jew is.

Also, let me correct a phrase in my response #71: ". . . as to how Jews foreign to those areas ought to relate. . ." should have read ". . . as to how Christian Jews foreign to those areas ought to relate . . .".

[editor-surveyor]

There is no “Jewish” race.

Jews are apostate Hebrews, mostly of Judah and Benjamin.

The use of the term Jews in the epistles is simply an error by the Greek translators, as Strong’s indicates.